210+ Waste Water Treatment Solved MCQs

101.

Which of the following option is incorrect about the sludges?

A. Sludges are soft, loose and slimy precipitate
B. They are non-adherent deposits and can be easily removed
C. Formed generally at heated portions of the boiler
D. Can be removed by blow down operation
Answer» C. Formed generally at heated portions of the boiler
102.

The propulsion of water into steam drum by extremely rapid, almost explosive boiling of water at the heating surface is called ___________

A. Foaming
B. Priming
C. Corrosion
D. Caustic embrittlement
Answer» B. Priming
103.

The phenomenon during which the boiler material becomes brittle due to accumulation of caustic substances is known as ___________

A. Foaming
B. Priming
C. Corrosion
D. Caustic embrittlement
Answer» D. Caustic embrittlement
104.

Foaming is caused by the formation of ___________

A. Acids
B. Alcohols
C. Oils and alkalis
D. Ketones
Answer» C. Oils and alkalis
105.

The term ‘Sullage’ refers to:

A. Fresh wastewater
B. Septic wastewater
C. Wastewater from kitchen, laundry
D. Toxic wastewater
Answer» C. Wastewater from kitchen, laundry
106.

Wastewater can become septic by the loss of:

A. Dissolved oxygen content
B. Carbon content
C. Organic compounds
D. Water content
Answer» A. Dissolved oxygen content
107.

Which one of the below is not an attribute of drinking water?

A. Aesthetics
B. Economic
C. Safety
D. Source
Answer» D. Source
108.

The extent of water treatment depends on how many factors?

A. 5
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer» B. 2
109.

What is added to the water treatment tank to settle the colloidal particles?

A. Alum
B. Alum and lime
C. Lime
D. Potash
Answer» B. Alum and lime
110.

Disinfection of water in our country is mainly done by ____________

A. Oxygenation
B. Hydration
C. Chlorination
D. Filtration
Answer» C. Chlorination
111.

Which minerals and in what form are present in ground water?

A. Fe & Mn in Ferrous and Manganous
B. Fe & Cu in Ferric and Cupric
C. Fe & Mn in Ferric and manganous
D. Cu & Mn in Cuprous and manganous
Answer» A. Fe & Mn in Ferrous and Manganous
112.

How many types of wastewater treatment plants are there based on the type of wastewater?

A. 5
B. 4
C. 2
D. 3
Answer» D. 3
113.

On how many conditions does the intervention of wastewater depend on?

A. 5
B. 7
C. 6
D. 4
Answer» B. 7
114.

The surface water quality is affected by _______ and infiltration from rainfall.

A. Precipitation
B. Run off
C. Wetlands
D. Farming
Answer» B. Run off
115.

_________ are constructed for water supply, electricity generation, recreation, irrigation and others.

A. Swimming pools
B. Ponds
C. Reservoirs
D. Tanks
Answer» C. Reservoirs
116.

What is the next step after water abstraction in wastewater treatment?

A. Supply to consumers
B. Treatment
C. Combine with stormwater
D. Supply to receiving body
Answer» B. Treatment
117.

Which of the following requires aesthetically pleasant water?

A. Domestic use
B. Industrial use
C. Irrigation
D. Aquaculture
Answer» B. Industrial use
118.

The addition of substances or energy forms that directly or indirectly alter the nature of the water body is called?

A. Water contamination
B. Water pollution
C. Sanitation
D. Water treatment
Answer» B. Water pollution
119.

What is the type of pollution where the pollutants reach the water body in points called?

A. Point-source pollution
B. Diffuse pollution
C. Point-source contamination
D. Diffuse contamination
Answer» A. Point-source pollution
120.

What percentage of solids does wastewater contain?

A. 0.5%
B. 5%
C. 0.1%
D. 1%
Answer» C. 0.1%
121.

What is the growth of huge amounts of algae and other aquatic plants leading to the deterioration of the water quality called?

A. Eutrophication
B. Algae growth
C. Nitrification
D. Denitrification
Answer» A. Eutrophication
122.

The optimum temperature for bacterial activity is in what range?

A. 25-35 degree Celsius
B. 50 degree Celsius
C. 20 degree Celsius
D. 40 degree Celsius
Answer» A. 25-35 degree Celsius
123.

The fluoride concentration for prevention of dental caries is ____________

A. 1mg/l
B. 2mg/l
C. 3mg/l
D. 4mg/l
Answer» A. 1mg/l
124.

In which process, the fluoride content of water is raised?

A. Chlorination
B. Fluoridation
C. Defluoridation
D. Flocculation
Answer» B. Fluoridation
125.

Which of the following is not used as a fluoride compound?

A. Sodium fluoride
B. Sodium silico fluoride
C. Hydrofluosilicic acid
D. Sodium fluro carbonate
Answer» D. Sodium fluro carbonate
126.

Which of the following is the pure compound?

A. Sodium fluoride
B. Sodium silico fluoride
C. Hydrofluosilicic acid
D. Sodium fluro carbonate
Answer» A. Sodium fluoride
127.

As far as safer handling is considered, which of the following is used for fluoridation?

A. Sodium fluoride
B. Sodium silico fluoride
C. Hydrofluosilicic acid
D. Sodium fluro carbonate
Answer» C. Hydrofluosilicic acid
128.

What happens when water contains 8-20 ppm of fluoride concentration?

A. Blue baby disease
B. Crippling fluorosis
C. Dental fluorosis
D. Mottling of teeth
Answer» B. Crippling fluorosis
129.

The process of reducing the fluoride content from water is called _____

A. Chlorination
B. Fluoridation
C. Defluoridation
D. Flocculation
Answer» C. Defluoridation
130.

Which of the following is not used for defluoridation?

A. Calcium phosphate
B. Copper sulfate
C. Alum
D. Bone charcoal
Answer» B. Copper sulfate
131.

At which temperature, the bone is calcinated during defluoridation with calcium phosphate?

A. 100-200oC
B. 200-300oC
C. 400-600oC
D. 500-800oC
Answer» C. 400-600oC
132.

One cubic metre of bone can treat how much quantity of water containing 3.5 ppm of fluoride?

A. 10m3
B. 100m3
C. 1000m3
D. 10000m3
Answer» B. 100m3
133.

Which material is used in contact filters for the removal of fluorides?

A. Calcium phosphate
B. Copper sulfate
C. Synthetic tri-calcium phosphate
D. Bone charcoal
Answer» C. Synthetic tri-calcium phosphate
134.

Which material is used for removing fluorides from hard water containing 3ppm of fluorides?

A. Lime
B. Copper sulfate
C. Synthetic tri-calcium phosphate
D. Bone charcoal
Answer» A. Lime
135.

Fluorex is a special mixture of ____________

A. Di-calcium phosphate and carbon
B. Tri-calcium phosphate and hydroxyapatite
C. Di-calcium phosphate and phosphoric acid
D. Tri-calcium phosphate and carbon
Answer» B. Tri-calcium phosphate and hydroxyapatite
136.

Which of these materials is not added to iron for improving its oxidation resistance?

A. Nickel
B. Chromium
C. Aluminum
D. Silicon
Answer» D. Silicon
137.

How much chromium is required to provide oxidation resistance for use over 1000oC?

A. 1%
B. 6%
C. 12%
D. 17%
Answer» D. 17%
138.

Molybdenum with hydrogen can be used up to ________

A. 1000oC
B. 1500oC
C. 2000oC
D. 4000oC
Answer» B. 1500oC
139.

% chromium mixed with ______ can be used up to 1100oC.

A. Nickel
B. Chromium
C. Aluminum
D. Silicon
Answer» A. Nickel
140.

Which of these metals does not require alloying for oxidation resistance?

A. Iron
B. Copper
C. Aluminum
D. Molybdenum
Answer» C. Aluminum
141.

_________ is used to prevent duralumin from corrosion.

A. Iron
B. Kynal
C. Titanium
D. Alclad
Answer» D. Alclad
142.

Galvanized ion is made by dipping low carbon steel in molten zinc at ________

A. 100oC
B. 150oC
C. 200oC
D. 450oC
Answer» D. 450oC
143.

Which of these is not a way to prevent intergranular corrosion?

A. Reduction of carbon level
B. Quenching
C. Addition of carbide forming elements
D. Reduction of alloying elements
Answer» D. Reduction of alloying elements
144.

Dezincification of brass is prevented by addition of ________

A. Nickel
B. Zinc
C. Arsenic
D. Tungsten
Answer» C. Arsenic
145.

Season-cracking can be prevented by cold-working of brass at _________

A. 15oC
B. 100oC
C. 300oC
D. 550oC
Answer» C. 300oC
146.

How can caustic embrittlement be avoided?

A. Addition of nickel
B. Increasing potential
C. Decreasing carbon
D. Adding tannins
Answer» D. Adding tannins
147.

A grit chamber is usually installed ______ primary sedimentation tanks.

A. Before
B. After
C. In between
D. In
Answer» A. Before
148.

At what velocity will the particles settle down?

A. 0.5 m/s
B. 0.3 m/s
C. 0.1 m/s
D. 0.25 m/s
Answer» B. 0.3 m/s
149.

Grit chambers are constructed to prevent their accumulation in _______

A. Sedimentation tank
B. Sludge digesters
C. Coagulation tank
D. Sand filter
Answer» B. Sludge digesters
150.

What is the cleaning period for manual grit chambers?

A. 3 days
B. 5 days
C. 48 hours
D. 1 week
Answer» D. 1 week
151.

Grit chamber is similar to which of the following?

A. Screening unit
B. Sedimentation tank
C. Coagulation tank
D. Sand bed
Answer» B. Sedimentation tank
152.

What is the specific gravity of settleable particles in the grit chamber?

A. 2.98
B. 2.56
C. 2.65
D. 2.89
Answer» C. 2.65
153.

Stoke’s law holds good for Reynolds’s number ______

A. Less than 1
B. Equal to 1
C. Greater than 1
D. Nearer to 1
Answer» A. Less than 1
154.

What is the horizontal velocity considered for grit chamber?

A. 0.25-0.4m/sec
B. 0.6-0.9 m/sec
C. 1-2 m/sec
D. 3-4m/sec
Answer» A. 0.25-0.4m/sec
155.

What is the detention time considered for aerated grit chamber?

A. 5-6 mins
B. 2-5 mins
C. 1-2 mins
D. 3-4 mins
Answer» B. 2-5 mins
156.

Which of these is not a grit removal equipment installed in the aerated grit chamber?

A. Screw conveyers
B. Tubular conveyers
C. Jet pumps
D. Communitors
Answer» D. Communitors
157.

What is the amount of air supplied for these grit chambers?

A. 1-2 m3/m.min
B. 0.2-0.5 m3/m.min
C. 0.5-0.8 m3/m.min
D. 0.8-1 m3/m.min
Answer» B. 0.2-0.5 m3/m.min
158.

At what depth are the air diffusers placed in the grit chamber?

A. 0.6-0.9 m
B. 1-2 m
C. 0.1-0.4m
D. 0.45-0.6 m
Answer» D. 0.45-0.6 m
159.

What is the amount of grit quantities captured by the aerated grit chamber?

A. 0.004-0.20 m3/103.m3
B. 0.25 m3/103.m3
C. <0.004 m3/103.m3
D. 0.5 m3/103.m3
Answer» A. 0.004-0.20 m3/103.m3
160.

Usually while designing what is the range of the width of the aerated grit chamber assumed?

A. 0.5-2 m
B. 8-10 m
C. 2.5-7.0m
D. 12m
Answer» C. 2.5-7.0m
161.

Usually while designing what is the range of length of the aerated grit chamber assumed?

A. 7.5-20
B. 4-6 m
C. 25 m
D. 50 m
Answer» A. 7.5-20
162.

Usually while designing what is the range of depth of the aerated grit chamber assumed?

A. 0.5-2 m
B. 8-10 m
C. 2-5 m
D. 12 m
Answer» C. 2-5 m
163.

Aerated grit chambers are usually designed to remove particles in which range of size?

A. 0.1mm diameter
B. 0.35 mm diameter
C. 0.21 mm diameter
D. 0.41 mm diameter
Answer» C. 0.21 mm diameter
164.

Activated sludge process degrade organics and _________

A. Improve nutrients
B. Remove nutrients
C. Remove odour
D. Remove taste
Answer» B. Remove nutrients
165.

What is required to keep the activated sludge suspended?

A. Carbon-dioxide
B. Nitrogen
C. Oxygen
D. Ammonia
Answer» C. Oxygen
166.

What does the bacterium use to grow?

A. Oxygen
B. Organic pollutants
C. Water
D. Carbon-dioxide
Answer» B. Organic pollutants
167.

________ combines aeration basin and secondary clarifier into single unit.

A. Primary clarifier
B. Aerobic unit
C. Sequential batch reactor
D. Secondary clarifier
Answer» C. Sequential batch reactor
168.

What does SBR stand for?

A. Secondary batch reactor
B. Sequential biological reactor
C. Secondary biological reactor
D. Sequential batch reactor
Answer» D. Sequential batch reactor
169.

SBR operates as ________ process.

A. Batch
B. Continuous
C. Semi-continuous
D. Discontinuous
Answer» A. Batch
170.

When the aeration system shuts off, the basin begins to perform as a ______

A. Primary clarifier
B. Secondary clarifier
C. Anaerobic unit
D. Aeration unit
Answer» B. Secondary clarifier
171.

_______ provides the dual purpose of providing DO and mixing of the mixed liquor and wastewater.

A. Flocculation
B. Aeration
C. Sedimentation
D. Clarification
Answer» B. Aeration
172.

Ion-exchange resin is ____________

A. Linear
B. Low molecular weight
C. Organic polymer with porous structure
D. Soluble
Answer» C. Organic polymer with porous structure
173.

Which of the following ion get released from the cation exchange column?

A. H+
B. Na+
C. K+
D. Ca+2
Answer» A. H+
174.

Which of the following ion get released from the anion exchange column?

A. CO3-2
B. OH–
C. Cl–
D. SO4-2
Answer» B. OH–
175.

Ion-free water coming out from the exchanger is known as ____________

A. Potable water
B. Disinfected water
C. Coagulated water
D. Demineralised water
Answer» D. Demineralised water
176.

Which of the following statement is incorrect about the demineralised water?

A. It is as pure as distilled water
B. It is very good for use in high pressure boilers
C. It is fit for domestic use
D. It can be made either by distillation or by using cation and anion exchangers
Answer» C. It is fit for domestic use
177.

The exhausted cation exchange column is regenerated by passing a solution of ____________

A. Dil. HCl
B. Dil. NaCl
C. Conc. HCl
D. Conc. NaCl
Answer» A. Dil. HCl
178.

The exhausted anion exchange column is regenerated by passing a solution of ____________

A. Dil. KOH
B. Conc. KOH
C. Conc. NaOH
D. Dil. NaOH
Answer» D. Dil. NaOH
179.

In ion-exchange process, the capital cost is _________ and the operational expenses are ______________

A. Low, high
B. High, low
C. High, high
D. Low, low
Answer» C. High, high
180.

The residual hardness in ion-exchange process is ____________

A. 0-2 ppm
B. 5-10 ppm
C. 10-15 ppm
D. 20-30 ppm
Answer» A. 0-2 ppm
181.

How many oxygen atoms are present in the ozone?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer» C. 3
182.

_______ is produced by subjecting oxygen to high electric voltage.

A. Carbon-monoxide
B. Carbon-dioxide
C. Pure oxygen
D. Ozone
Answer» D. Ozone
183.

Which of the following can be inactivated using ozone?

A. Algae
B. Fungi
C. Protozoa
D. All microbes
Answer» C. Protozoa
184.

Which of these is not an advantage of Ozonation?

A. Reaction with bacteria
B. Organics degradation
C. Equipment costs
D. Chemicals
Answer» C. Equipment costs
185.

Which of the following is not a disadvantage of Ozonation?

A. Chemicals
B. Costs
C. Energy
D. Fire hazard
Answer» A. Chemicals
186.

Which of the following is not removed by Ozonation?

A. Iron
B. Manganese
C. Magnesium
D. Bacteria
Answer» C. Magnesium
187.

What is the maximum time required for ozone degradation?

A. 15 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 45 minutes
D. 60 minutes
Answer» B. 30 minutes
188.

What is the average ozone concentration created during Ozonation?

A. 1000 mg/l
B. 5000 mg/l
C. 10000 mg/l
D. 15000 mg/l
Answer» C. 10000 mg/l
189.

Which of the following is not correct regarding Ozonation?

A. Does not requires chemicals
B. Eliminates bad taste
C. Eliminates odour
D. Operational costs are low
Answer» D. Operational costs are low
190.

What is the colour of ozone?

A. Violet
B. White
C. Grey
D. Colourless
Answer» D. Colourless
191.

Ozone is formed by the interaction of _______

A. UV or O2
B. O and O2
C. O and UV
D. O2 and CO
Answer» A. UV or O2
192.

In which year was the structure of ozone determined?

A. 1865
B. 1875
C. 1885
D. 1895
Answer» A. 1865
193.

In which year was the ozone named?

A. 1829
B. 1839
C. 1849
D. 1859
Answer» B. 1839
194.

At what pH ozonation is carried out?

A. 8
B. 9
C. 11
D. 7
Answer» A. 8
195.

Photo catalysis uses which of the following methods to produce free radicals?

A. UV rays
B. UV + TiO2
C. Ozone + UV
D. TiO2
Answer» B. UV + TiO2
196.

How is the electrical requirement for the ozonation process expressed mathematically?

A. EE/O =EEt/ Vlog(Ci-Cf)
B. EE/O =EEt/ (Ci-Cf)
C. EE/O =EEt Vlog(Ci-Cf)
D. EE/O =EEt(Ci-Cf)
Answer» A. EE/O =EEt/ Vlog(Ci-Cf)
197.

What are the byproducts of the breakdown of the organic compounds by UV rays?

A. CO
B. CO2 + H2O
C. H2CO3 and water
D. CO + H2O
Answer» B. CO2 + H2O
198.

In what range is the EE/O present in order to reduce one log of reduction?

A. 0-20 KWH
B. 20-265 KWH
C. 265-365 KWH
D. 365-650 KWH
Answer» B. 20-265 KWH
199.

Primary sludge includes __________

A. Total suspended solids
B. Suspended solids
C. Removable solids
D. Settleable solids
Answer» D. Settleable solids
200.

Which of the following methods are used in rural communities?

A. Aerobic digestion
B. Mechanical dewatering
C. Dewatering
D. Composting
Answer» D. Composting
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