

McqMate
Q. |
A synthetic progestin. What is the most likely explanation for the contraceptive action of this drug? |
A. | Replacement of the LH surge by an FSH surge. |
B. | Abolition of the LH surge |
C. | Enhanced positive feedback of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis. |
D. | Increased conversion of testosterone to estradiol. |
E. | Inadequate decidualization of the uterus. |
Answer» E. Inadequate decidualization of the uterus. |
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