A 25 years old school teacher Para 1 wants to use oral contraceptive pills for contraception. She is asking about the mode of action of oral contraceptive pills. The mechanism of action of oral contraceptive pills is:

Related MCQs

• A 18-year-old woman comes to the physician for an annual examination. She has no complaints. She has been sexually active for the past 2 years. She uses the oral contraceptive pill for contraception. She has depression for which she takes fluoxetine. She takes no other medications and has no allergies to medications. Her family history is negative for cancer and cardiac disease. Examination is unremarkable. Which of the following screening tests should this patient most likely have?
• A 19-year-old female comes to the physician because of left lower quadrant pain for 2 months. She states that she first noticed the pain 2 months ago but now it seems to be growing worse. She has had no changes in bowel or bladder function. She has no fevers or chills and no nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea. The pain is intermittent and sometimes feels like a dull pressure. Pelvic examination is significant for a left adnexal mass that is mildly tender. Urine hCG is negative. Pelvic ultrasound shows a 6 cm complex left adnexal mass with features consistent with a benign cystic teratoma (dermoid). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
• A 54-year-old woman comes to the physician for an annual examination. She has no complaints. For the past year, she has been taking tamoxifen for the prevention of breast cancer. She was started on this drug after her physician determined her to be at high risk on the basis of her strong family history, nulliparity, and early age at menarche. She takes no other medications. Examination is within normal limits. Which of the following is this patient most likely to develop while taking tamoxifen?
• A 62-year-old woman comes to the physician because of bleeding from the v*gina. She states that her last menstrual period came 11 years ago and that she has had no bleeding since that time. She has hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Examination shows a mildly obese woman in no apparent distress. Pelvic examination is unremarkable. An endometrial biopsy is performed that shows grade I endometrial adenocarcinoma. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
• A 39 years old women Para 6 has presented with complaint of post coital bleeding for the past three months. Your first investigation should be:
• A 42-year-old G4P4 has had postcoital bleeding for the past four months. She has not had a Pap test since the delivery of her last child 7 years ago. Speculum examination shows a vaginal discharge and a 1 cm exophytic lesion of the posterior cervical lip. The most appropriate next step is:
• A 23 years old primigravida presents with abdominal pain, syncope and vaginal spotting. Assessment reveals that she has an ectopic pregnancy. The most common site of pregnancy is:
• A 28 years old woman has 14 weeks size irregular uterus. She does not complain of abdominal pain or menorrhagia. Her pap smear is normal. The best next step in her management would be:
• A synthetic progestin. What is the most likely explanation for the contraceptive action of this drug?
• A 29-year-old G4P4 is found to have an abnormal smear signed out as atypical glandular cells, favouring neoplasia. She undergoes a colposcopy with cervical biopsies. One of the ectocervical biopsies demonstrated adenocarcinima in the situ. The most appropriate next step is: