A 43 year old, lecturer has come to you with complaints of heavy but regular menstrual bleeding with flooding and clots. There is no anatomical reason for heavy flow. The most effective remedy for reducing her menstrual flow is:

Related MCQs

• A 62-year-old woman comes to the physician because of bleeding from the v*gina. She states that her last menstrual period came 11 years ago and that she has had no bleeding since that time. She has hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Examination shows a mildly obese woman in no apparent distress. Pelvic examination is unremarkable. An endometrial biopsy is performed that shows grade I endometrial adenocarcinoma. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
• A 54-year-old woman comes to the physician for an annual examination. She has no complaints. For the past year, she has been taking tamoxifen for the prevention of breast cancer. She was started on this drug after her physician determined her to be at high risk on the basis of her strong family history, nulliparity, and early age at menarche. She takes no other medications. Examination is within normal limits. Which of the following is this patient most likely to develop while taking tamoxifen?
• A 18-year-old woman comes to the physician for an annual examination. She has no complaints. She has been sexually active for the past 2 years. She uses the oral contraceptive pill for contraception. She has depression for which she takes fluoxetine. She takes no other medications and has no allergies to medications. Her family history is negative for cancer and cardiac disease. Examination is unremarkable. Which of the following screening tests should this patient most likely have?
• 58 years old woman has presented with complaints of postmenopausal bleeding for the past two weeks. The most essential investigation would be:
• A 42-year-old G4P4 has had postcoital bleeding for the past four months. She has not had a Pap test since the delivery of her last child 7 years ago. Speculum examination shows a vaginal discharge and a 1 cm exophytic lesion of the posterior cervical lip. The most appropriate next step is:
• 56 years old woman has come to you with the complaints of hot flushes irritability, joint pains with lack of sleep. Most appropriate treatment would be:
• A 48-year-old woman has noted a small amount of irregular vaginal bleeding for the past 2 months. She has a pelvic examination that reveals no cervical lesions, and a Pap smear that shows no abnormal cells. Next, an endometrial biopsy is performed, and there is microscopic evidence for endometrial hyperplasia. An abdominal ultrasound reveals a solid right ovarian mass. Which of the following neoplasms is this woman is most likely to have?
• A 47-year-old woman has noted a pressure sensation, but no pain, in her pelvic region for the past 5 months. On physical examination there is a right adnexal mass. An ultrasound scan shows a 10 cm fluid-filled cystic mass in the right ovary. A fine needle aspirate of the mass is performed and cytologic examination of clear fluid aspirated from the mass reveals clusters of malignant epithelial cells surrounding psammoma bodies. Which of the following neoplasms is she most likely to have?
• A young medical student has come to you with complaints of oligomenorrrhea, hirsuitism and weight gain, ultrasound reveals bulky ovaries with sub-capsular cysts. Most likely diagnosis is:
• Dysfunctional uterine bleeding is said to present when there is bleeding due to :