Which of the following statements regarding vaginal breech birth is FALSE?

Related MCQs

• Refers to a maneuver which attempts to turn a breech baby to a cephalic presentation
• The most common type of breech
• Breech presentations occurs in ___ of term pregnancies
• A 31-year-old, HIV-positive woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 32-weeks' gestation comes to the physician for a prenatal visit. Her prenatal course is significant for the fact that she has taken zidovudine throughout the pregnancy. Otherwise, her prenatal course has been unremarkable. She has no history of mental illness. She states that she has been weighing the benefits and risks of cesarean delivery in preventing transmission of the virus to her baby. After much deliberation, she has decided that she does not want a cesarean delivery and would like to attempt a vaginal delivery. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
• In which of the following condition vaginal delivery is contraindicated?
• Following a vaginal delivery, a woman develops a fever, lower abdominal pain and uterine tenderness. She is alert, and her blood pressure and urine output are good. Large gram positive rods suggestive of clostridia are seen in a smear of cervix. management should include all except :
• A primigravida presents to casualty at 32 weeks gestation with acute pain abdomen for 2 hours, vaginal bleeding and decreased fetal movements. She should be managed by;
• A 34wk GA lady presented with vaginal bleeding of an amount more of that of her normal cycle. O/E uterine contracts every 4 min, bulged membrane, the cervix is 3 cm dilated, fetus is in a high transverse lie and the placenta is on the posterior fundus. US showed translucency behind the placenta and the CTG (Cardiotocography) showed FHR of 170, the best line of management is:
• Female patient with history of irregular vaginal bleeding tender right iliac fossa , CBC normal , B-HCG positive , most likely to be :
• A 20 year old full-term primigravida is brought to the casualty with labour pains for last 24 hours and a hand prolapse. On examination, she has pulse 96/min, BP 120/80 mm Hg, and mild pallor. The abdominal examination reveals the uterine height at 32 weeks, the foetus in transverse lie and absent foetal heart sounds. On vaginal examination, the left arm of the foetus is prolapsed and the foetal ribs are palpable. The pelvis is adequate. What would be the best management option ?