A 59-year-old man was referred because of a change in bowel habit. He had noticed no alteration in stool calibre, gastrointestinal bleeding or unintended weight loss. There was no family history of colonic polyps or gastrointestinal malignancy. Physical examination was normal. A rectal examination revealed no masses. A sigmoidoscopy revealed a 4-mm polyp in the mid-rectum, which was removed with forceps, and histology revealed a tubular adenoma. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

Related MCQs

• A 72-year-old man is evaluated because of constipation, abdominal pain, and distention that have worsened over the past week. Two years ago, he was diagnosed with stage III rectal cancer (primary tumor and renal involvement) and underwent low anterior resection. Chemotherapy with 5-fluorouracil and leucovorin followed, and pelvic radiation was given with concurrent infusion of 5-fluorouracil. He has been having regular bowel movements, and results of his most recent colonoscopy (1 year ago) were unremarkable. On physical examination, his pulse rate is 100/min. He has orthostatic hypotension, a slightly distended abdomen with hyperactive bowel sounds, and some guarding to deep palpation in the left lower quadrant. Plain radiograph of the abdomen shows distended loops of small bowel, with no stool in the distal colon or rectum. The patient is hospitalized for bowel rest and intravenous hydration. What is the next step in this patient‟s management?
• A 42-year-old woman is evaluated because she has noticed a thickening in her left breast over the past few weeks. She noticed it a few months ago, but because it seems to come and go, she put off seeking medical attention. She is premenopausal. She had menarche at age 13 years. When she was 35 years, she had one child (whom she breast-fed) after a normal first full-term pregnancy. She took oral contraceptives for 10 years before her pregnancy. She has no known radiation exposure and no family history of breast cancer. On physical examination, there appears to be some asymmetry in breast tissue density in the upper outer quadrant of the left breast compared with the right one, but no discrete mass. There are no palpable lymph nodes. Results of a mammogram are negative. What would be the most appropriate next step in this patients management?
• A 76-year-old male was admitted for symptoms including constipation, change in stool character and weight loss. Colonoscopy revealed multiple polyps in the rectosigmoid area. An adenomatous polyp was removed. Another colonic tumor was seen in the same patient which was flat with irregular “shaggy rug” surface. A biopsy showed frond-like glandular architecture. Atypical epithelial cells in clusters were seen beneath the muscularis mucosae. The most likely diagnosis is:
• A 60-year-old man presents for an annual physical examination. The examination is normal except for a palpable mass in the rectum on digital rectal examination. The patient denies any change in bowel habits and feels well. Rectal cancer is suspected. What is the next best step in the evaluation of this patient?
• A 68-year-old woman is evaluated because of rectal bleeding that began recently and a sense of fullness in the rectum. Flexible sigmoidoscopy shows a mass 11 cm from the anus, and biopsy reveals adenocarcinoma. The patient is referred to a colorectal surgeon, and a low anterior resection is performed. The primary tumor, a 4-cm moderately differentiated adenocarcinoma, penetrates the bowel wall. No lymph nodes are involved. What is the most appropriate next step in this patient‟s management?
• A 63-year-old man is evaluated because of a several-month history of increasing fatigue and some vague upper abdominal discomfort. His medical history includes gastroesophageal reflux disease, coronary artery disease, and clinical depression, all of which are well controlled with medications. The patient has been working full time. On physical examination, he has mild hepatomegaly. His hemoglobin is 12.2 g/dL, serum alkaline phosphatase level 280 U/L, and serum aspartate aminotransferase level 65 U/L. CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis shows multiple hepatic lesions ranging in size from 1 cm to 4 cm; mesenteric, para-aortic, and paracaval lymphadenopathy, and a colonic mass at the splenic flexure. Colonoscopy reveals a nonobstructing, non bleeding lesion; biopsy shows it to be poorly differentiated adenocarcinoma. Fine- needle aspiration of one of the liver lesions confirms the presence of malignant cells consistent with a primary colon cancer. What is the most appropriate next step in
• A 69-year old black man is evaluated because of a history of steadily increasing upper abdominal pain, loss of appetite, and a 4.6-kg (1 0-Ib) weight loss over the past several months. He recently noticed that the color of his urine was darker than usual. The patient had a 40-pack-year history of cigarette smoking, but quit smoking 4 years ago. He has hypertension that is controlled by medical management. Laboratory studies: Hemoglobin 11.5 g/dL Serum total bilirubin 3.3 g/dL Serum albumin 3.2 g/dL Serum aspartate aminotransferase 105 U/L Serum alanine aminotransferase 95 U/L Urinalysis shows elevated bilirubin. CT scan of the abdomen shows dilation of the common bile and pancreatic ducts, a 5.2-cm mass in the head of the pancreas, and compression of the superior mesenteric vein. A fine-needle aspirate of the mass reveals atypical cells that are suspicious for malignancy. What is the most appropriate course of action?
• A 32-year-old woman is evaluated because of a painless swelling in her lower neck. She noted the swelling about 3 weeks ago and now thinks it is getting larger. She has no history of foreign travel. She smokes but does not drink alcohol. She owns a cat. She has not had fever or unexplained weight loss, but has had night sweats twice in the past week. She has been feeling fatigued lately and has noted dyspnea on exertion. On physical examination, a 3 X 5-cm left supraclavicular lymph node is palpable. It is firm but not rock-hard and is nontender. The remainder of her physical examination and results of a complete blood count are normal. What is the best next step in this patient‟s management?
• A 64-year-old man is evaluated because of fatigue and shortness of breath on exertion. He has had three episodes of urinary tract infection in the past 7 months. On physical examination, he has pallor but is otherwise normal. He denies blood loss, and his stool is negative for occult blood on three measurements. He is anemic (hemoglobin 8.4 g/dL) with normochromic, normocytic indices, and his serum creatinine level is 2.9 mg/dL. The total serum protein level is elevated, and the serum albumin level is low normal. His serum calcium level is 11.8 mg/dL.What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?
• A 57-year-old man is found to have a rectal mass 3 cm from the anal verge on digital rectal examination. Subsequent colonoscopy and biopsy confirm rectal adenocarcinoma. EUS examination demonstrates penetration of the tumor into, but not through, the muscularis propria, but shows significant perirectal lymph nodes. CT scan of chest/abdomen/pelvis demonstrates no metastases. The patient is staged as T2N1M0. What procedure should be attempted to remove the primary lesion in this patient?