A 68-year-old man with locally advanced non-small-cell lung cancer is evaluated because of the new onset of low back pain over the past 2 weeks. It is relieved with ibuprofen, and his only other symptom is mild fatigue. The patient completed combined chemotherapy and radiation therapy 6 months ago, and restaging scans afterward showed marked shrinkage of the right perihilar mass. He has no muscle weakness. Plain radiograph of the thoracic and lumbar spine shows no abnormalities other than signs of mild osteoarthritis. Neurologic examination is unremarkable. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

Related MCQs

• A 72-year-old man is evaluated because of constipation, abdominal pain, and distention that have worsened over the past week. Two years ago, he was diagnosed with stage III rectal cancer (primary tumor and renal involvement) and underwent low anterior resection. Chemotherapy with 5-fluorouracil and leucovorin followed, and pelvic radiation was given with concurrent infusion of 5-fluorouracil. He has been having regular bowel movements, and results of his most recent colonoscopy (1 year ago) were unremarkable. On physical examination, his pulse rate is 100/min. He has orthostatic hypotension, a slightly distended abdomen with hyperactive bowel sounds, and some guarding to deep palpation in the left lower quadrant. Plain radiograph of the abdomen shows distended loops of small bowel, with no stool in the distal colon or rectum. The patient is hospitalized for bowel rest and intravenous hydration. What is the next step in this patient‟s management?
• A 70-year-old man with an 80-pack-year smoking history is evaluated because of a chronic cough of 6 months duration. Chest radiograph shows a 3-cm mass in the left perihilar region, and bronchoscopic biopsy confirms poorly differentiated adenocarcinoma. There are no significant findings on physical examination, and all blood studies are normal. Bone scan and CT scan of the head are normal, but CT scans of the chest and abdomen show the mass and two 1-cm nodules in the right lobe of the liver. Intravenous contrast perfusion of the two nodules during the CT scan is not suspicious for hemangioma. Positron emission tomography scan shows distinct uptake in the left perihilar mass but only faint focal activity in the right lobe of the liver.Pulmonary function tests show mild obstructive disease. What is the best next step in this patient‟s management?
• A 40-year-old woman was treated for breast cancer 5 years ago by lumpectomy, breast irradiation, and 3 months of chemotherapy. Her original cancer was negative for estrogen and progesterone receptors and unequivocally positive for HER2. Her periods stopped during chemotherapy but resumed 4 months later, and she remains premenopausal now. She is evaluated now because of pain in her back, a nagging cough, and fatigue. Physical examination shows palpable skin nodules over the affected breast, axillary adenopathy, and dullness to percussion, and decreased breath sounds in the base of the left lung; her liver edge is palpable below the right costochondral border. Liver function values are approximately twice normal; serum bilirubin is normal. Radiograph of the chest shows multiple pulmonary nodules and a left pleural effusion confirmed by CT, which also shows the liver nodules. Bone scan and MRI are consistent with bone metastases. Biopsy of one of the skin lesions is consistent with metast
• A 66-year-old black woman diagnosed with stage III colon cancer underwent definitive resection of the primary tumor 3 years ago. After surgery, she received adjuvant chemotherapy with 5-fluorouracil and leucovorin. Approximately 20 months later, she developed metastatic disease in the liver (five lesions in right and left lobe) and lungs (one lesion in the right and left lobe). She was treated with irinotecan, 5-fluorouracil, and leucovorin, and had a partial response to therapy. One month ago, disease progression was documented on restaging CT scans. The patient‟s laboratory studies show relatively normal organ function. She has fatigue, decreased appetite, and has noticed a 2.3-kg (5-Ib) weight loss over the past 3 months. She has stopped participating in weekend bike trips with a cycling club, but remains involved in church and family activities and states that she wants to be as aggressive as possible in fighting the cancer. What is the most reasonable recommendation for this patie
• A 63-year-old man is evaluated because of new-onset hemoptysis and a 100-pack-year smoking history. Chest radiograph shows a 4-cm right perihilar mass, and bronchoscopic biopsy and cytologic evaluation of sputum confirm squamous cell carcinoma. There are no significant findings on physical examination, and the patient reports no weight loss.Complete blood count is normal except for a serum alkaline phosphatase level at 110 U/L. CT scans of the chest and abdomen show no mediastinal adenopathy. Results of a positron emission tomography scan are negative, except for the right perihilar mass.In which of the following situations would surgical therapy be offered?
• A 71-year-old man with mild chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and mild hypertension is evaluated during an annual routine visit. Review of systems is notable for intermittent cough, increasing dyspnea on exertion, a 2.3-kg (5 Ib) weight loss, and fatigue. The patient takes aspirin, 81 mg/d, and hydrochlorothiazide, 50 mg/d orally. He smoked one pack of cigarettes per day for 49 years but quit smoking 2 years ago. On physical examination, distant breath sounds are audible in both lungs and there are scattered rhonchi. Chest radiograph shows a perihilar mass. Abnormal laboratory results include hemoglobin of 12.5 g/dL and a serum sodium of 127 meq/L. Endobronchial biopsy reveals small-cell lung cancer. Further staging studies suggest that the disease is limited-stage. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient‟s hyponatremia?
• A 58-year-old woman with a 60-pack-year smoking history is evaluated because of hemoptysis and weight loss. Chest radiograph and CT scan show a right perihilar mass with mediastinal adenopathy. The results of CT scans of the abdomen, bone scan, and MRI of the head are otherwise negative. Examination of a specimen by bronchoscopic biopsy confirms small-cell lung cancer, and the findings suggest limited-stage disease. After the patient completes mediastinal radiation therapy and four cycles of cisplatin and etoposide, repeat CT scans indicate that her disease is in complete remission. What is the best recommendation concerning further therapy?
• A 37-year-old man is hospitalized because of fever and right-sided chest pain. He has been having fatigue and recently developed dyspnea on exertion and intermittent chills. At the age of 29 years he was diagnosed with stage III Hodgkin‟s disease and treated with multiagent chemotherapy and radiation therapy. A year ago, he developed mild anemia with no obvious cause. He takes thyroid hormone replacement when he remembers and has used fexofenadine as needed for allergic rhinitis for the past 5 years. On physical examination, his temperature is 38.7 °C (101.7 °F), pulse rate is 112/min, and blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg. There is dullness at the right lower lung and egophony. The hemoglobin is 8.5 g/dL, hematocrit is 26 %, leukocyte count is 2200/μL,and platelet count is 70,000/μL. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• A 42-year-old woman is evaluated because she has noticed a thickening in her left breast over the past few weeks. She noticed it a few months ago, but because it seems to come and go, she put off seeking medical attention. She is premenopausal. She had menarche at age 13 years. When she was 35 years, she had one child (whom she breast-fed) after a normal first full-term pregnancy. She took oral contraceptives for 10 years before her pregnancy. She has no known radiation exposure and no family history of breast cancer. On physical examination, there appears to be some asymmetry in breast tissue density in the upper outer quadrant of the left breast compared with the right one, but no discrete mass. There are no palpable lymph nodes. Results of a mammogram are negative. What would be the most appropriate next step in this patients management?
• An 82-year-old woman who has never smoked is evaluated because of a persistent cough. Chest radiograph shows several lung nodules and infiltrates. There are no significant findings on physical examination. The patient reports no weight loss. Blood studies show no abnormalities. CT scans confirm pulmonary involvement only, and results of bone scan and CT scan of the head are normal. The patient most likely has which of the following histologic types of lung cancer?