A 64-year-old man has terminal cancer with hepatic metastases. He is treated with oral morphine (Oramorph) solution for pain relief.Which is the most important pharmacodynamic factor in determining the appropriate timing between doses?

Related MCQs

• A 64-year-old woman has the following family history: One sister, who was a smoker, had lung cancer at the age of 63 years; another sister had breast cancer at the age of 70 years. Her father had prostate cancer at 82 years of age, and her mother had breast cancer at age 71 years. She has three other sisters, now aged 58, 60, and 65 years who have no history of cancer. She has two daughters and two sons between the ages of 25 and 39 years, who have no history of cancer. Her ancestry is European in general, and she is not of known Ashkenazi Jewish descent. She is concerned that “cancer runs in the family” and would like to have one of those “gene tests” she has read about. What is the best advice to give her and her family?
• A 50-year-old menstruating woman has a 1 .5-cm moderately differentiated breast cancer. The lesion is completely excised, and the margins of the excision are negative. Axillary node sampling shows that she has three positive nodes. The tumor is negative for estrogen and progesterone receptors and is highly positive for HER2. She is otherwise healthy. Her mother had breast cancer at 62 years and was treated by mastectomy; she is alive and healthy at the age of 80 years. The patients sister had breast cancer at 54 years and was treated by breast conservation therapy; 4 years later she died of a recurrence of breast cancer. The patient has seen two different surgeons with opposing viewpoints regarding the best treatment, and she has been reading extensively on the Internet and has become confused about her options. Which of the following represents the best treatment for this patient?
• A 30-year-old man presented with a swelling in the testis and an ultrasound scan confirmed the presence of a malignant mass. Following orchidectomy, he was found to have a 40-mm seminomatous germ cell tumour without non-seminomatous components. There was evidence of vascular invasion within the testis.Investigations: serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) 1250 U/L (10–250) serum α-fetoprotein normal serum β-human chorionic gonadotrophin (HCG) 700 U/L (<5) A CT scan of body showed retroperitoneal lymphadenopathy of up to 7 cm in size, a 3- cm mediastinal lymph node and over 30 pulmonary metastases. There were no signs of liver, brain or bone metastases. What is the most appropriate International Germ Cell Cancer Collaborative Group classification?
• A 40-year-old woman has a routine gynecologic examination. At the age of 32 years, she gave birth to twins after receiving fertility drugs. She has just seen a television program on ovarian cancer, and is concerned because previous use of fertility drugs and a family history of ovarian cancer were mentioned as possible risk factors. Her mother developed endometrial cancer at 56 years, and a paternal uncle was diagnosed with a type of lymphoma at 60 years. She has one older sister with hypertension and one younger brother who is healthy. Results of her pelvic examination are unremarkable, but she asks what additional tests she should have to look for ovarian cancer in the early stages that cannot be detected by physical examination. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?
• A 40-year-old woman was treated for breast cancer 5 years ago by lumpectomy, breast irradiation, and 3 months of chemotherapy. Her original cancer was negative for estrogen and progesterone receptors and unequivocally positive for HER2. Her periods stopped during chemotherapy but resumed 4 months later, and she remains premenopausal now. She is evaluated now because of pain in her back, a nagging cough, and fatigue. Physical examination shows palpable skin nodules over the affected breast, axillary adenopathy, and dullness to percussion, and decreased breath sounds in the base of the left lung; her liver edge is palpable below the right costochondral border. Liver function values are approximately twice normal; serum bilirubin is normal. Radiograph of the chest shows multiple pulmonary nodules and a left pleural effusion confirmed by CT, which also shows the liver nodules. Bone scan and MRI are consistent with bone metastases. Biopsy of one of the skin lesions is consistent with metast
• A 63-year-old man is evaluated because of a several-month history of increasing fatigue and some vague upper abdominal discomfort. His medical history includes gastroesophageal reflux disease, coronary artery disease, and clinical depression, all of which are well controlled with medications. The patient has been working full time. On physical examination, he has mild hepatomegaly. His hemoglobin is 12.2 g/dL, serum alkaline phosphatase level 280 U/L, and serum aspartate aminotransferase level 65 U/L. CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis shows multiple hepatic lesions ranging in size from 1 cm to 4 cm; mesenteric, para-aortic, and paracaval lymphadenopathy, and a colonic mass at the splenic flexure. Colonoscopy reveals a nonobstructing, non bleeding lesion; biopsy shows it to be poorly differentiated adenocarcinoma. Fine- needle aspiration of one of the liver lesions confirms the presence of malignant cells consistent with a primary colon cancer. What is the most appropriate next step in
• Which of the following types of cancer is most frequently associated with isolated hepatic metastases at presentation?
• A 68-year-old man with a 60-pack-year smoking history is evaluated because of hemoptysis. Radiograph of the chest shows a right hilar mass and mediastinal widening. CT scans of the chest and abdomen confirm the hilar mass and bulky lymphadenopathy in the mediastinum with no other overt metastases. Bronchoscopic biopsy specimen shows small-cell lung cancer. Bone scan and CT scan of the head are negative for tumor. A low serum sodium level and inappropriately high urine osmolality suggest that he has the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment recommendation?
• A 58-year-old postmenopausal woman has been taking hormone replacement therapy with combined estrogen and progestin for the past 4 years because she was told it would decrease her risk for heart disease. Her father died at age 65 years of heart disease, and she is concerned that she is also at risk. Recently, her sister has been diagnosed with breast cancer. Her mother died of breast cancer. Three years ago, the patient had a breast biopsy that showed atypical hyperplasia. She has not had a hysterectomy. The patient is considering chemoprevention for breast cancer, but is nonetheless concerned about heart disease. Her calculated risk of breast cancer is 10.4% over the next 5 years. Which of the following options is reasonable to consider for this patient?
• 26- A 60-year-old man was diagnosed last year with adenocarcinoma of the lung, and a 4 cm mass lesion was treated with a right lower lobectomy. He now has an abdominal CT scan that reveals scattered hepatic mass lesions and hilar lymphadenopathy. For several weeks, he has had increasing malaise. A urinalysis reveals marked proteinuria, and a 24 hour urine protein collection is 2.7 g/24hr. His serum urea is 30 mmol/L (2.5 - 7.5) with creatinine of 450 µmol/L (60 - 110). A renal biopsy is performed, and there is focal deposition of IgG and C3 with a granular pattern. He is most likely to have which of the following conditions?