In a case of Dysgerminoma of ovary tumor markers is likely to be raised.one of the following

Related MCQs

• A 29-year-old man was diagnosed with stage II (that is, spread from the primary tumor to retroperitoneal lymph nodes) nonseminomatous germ cell tumor 1 year ago. Treatment included orchiectomy and retroperitoneal lymph node dissection. He now presents with an elevated level of β-human chorionic gonadotropin hormone and multiple pulmonary lesions ranging in size from 0.61 to 3.22 cm. Needle biopsy specimen of the largest lesion reveals a germ cell tumor consistent with the initial diagnosis. He is asymptomatic. What is the best treatment for this patient?
• Which of the following statement about tumor markers is correct?
• During evaluation of tumor biopsy specimens, which of the following markers can be used as a histochemical indicator of cell proliferation?
• The most common pure germ cell tumor of the ovary is:
• A 76-year-old male was admitted for symptoms including constipation, change in stool character and weight loss. Colonoscopy revealed multiple polyps in the rectosigmoid area. An adenomatous polyp was removed. Another colonic tumor was seen in the same patient which was flat with irregular “shaggy rug” surface. A biopsy showed frond-like glandular architecture. Atypical epithelial cells in clusters were seen beneath the muscularis mucosae. The most likely diagnosis is:
• Which of the following cell markers is most commonly associated with classic Hodgkin lymphoma?
• A 50 year old male presents with widespread lymphadenopathy. He has had recent fever and weight loss. A trucut biopsy reveals a malignant tumor with the following phenotype; Cytokeratin negative, CLA positive, CD3 positive, and CD30 positive
• A 45-year-old woman is evaluated because of a palpable 2-cm right axillary lymph node. The lymph node is completely resected, and histologic study shows adenocarcinoma; hormone receptors are negative. Bilateral mammography is negative, as is MRI of the right breast. CT scans of the chest and abdomen are negative for tumor, and no further lymphadenopathy is detected. Results of bone scan and MRI of the head are also unremarkable. The patient had been previously healthy and has never smoked. Which of the following statements about this patients condition is correct?
• A 50-year-old menstruating woman has a 1 .5-cm moderately differentiated breast cancer. The lesion is completely excised, and the margins of the excision are negative. Axillary node sampling shows that she has three positive nodes. The tumor is negative for estrogen and progesterone receptors and is highly positive for HER2. She is otherwise healthy. Her mother had breast cancer at 62 years and was treated by mastectomy; she is alive and healthy at the age of 80 years. The patients sister had breast cancer at 54 years and was treated by breast conservation therapy; 4 years later she died of a recurrence of breast cancer. The patient has seen two different surgeons with opposing viewpoints regarding the best treatment, and she has been reading extensively on the Internet and has become confused about her options. Which of the following represents the best treatment for this patient?
• A 68-year-old man with a 60-pack-year smoking history is evaluated because of hemoptysis. Radiograph of the chest shows a right hilar mass and mediastinal widening. CT scans of the chest and abdomen confirm the hilar mass and bulky lymphadenopathy in the mediastinum with no other overt metastases. Bronchoscopic biopsy specimen shows small-cell lung cancer. Bone scan and CT scan of the head are negative for tumor. A low serum sodium level and inappropriately high urine osmolality suggest that he has the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment recommendation?