During evaluation of tumor biopsy specimens, which of the following markers can be used as a histochemical indicator of cell proliferation?

Related MCQs

• A 29-year-old man was diagnosed with stage II (that is, spread from the primary tumor to retroperitoneal lymph nodes) nonseminomatous germ cell tumor 1 year ago. Treatment included orchiectomy and retroperitoneal lymph node dissection. He now presents with an elevated level of β-human chorionic gonadotropin hormone and multiple pulmonary lesions ranging in size from 0.61 to 3.22 cm. Needle biopsy specimen of the largest lesion reveals a germ cell tumor consistent with the initial diagnosis. He is asymptomatic. What is the best treatment for this patient?
• A 52-year-old woman who is a nonsmoker has a 3-cm right inguinal lymph node.Biopsy specimen shows a poorly differentiated malignancy that is difficult to characterize by light microscopy. The biopsy specimen is negative for leukocyte common antigen, cytokeratin, and estrogen receptors. Which of the following additional tests would best establish the source of this tumor?
• A 68-year-old man with a 60-pack-year smoking history is evaluated because of hemoptysis. Radiograph of the chest shows a right hilar mass and mediastinal widening. CT scans of the chest and abdomen confirm the hilar mass and bulky lymphadenopathy in the mediastinum with no other overt metastases. Bronchoscopic biopsy specimen shows small-cell lung cancer. Bone scan and CT scan of the head are negative for tumor. A low serum sodium level and inappropriately high urine osmolality suggest that he has the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment recommendation?
• A 61-year-old man with a 120-pack-year smoking history is evaluated for a persistent and worsening cough and found to have a 3-cm mass in the right upper lobe on chest radiography. CT-directed needle biopsy is positive for squamous cell carcinoma. CT scans of the abdomen and pelvis, bone scan, and MRI of the head are negative for metastatic disease. Positron emission tomography scan shows uptake only in the right upper lobe mass, and pulmonary function tests indicate that the patient has adequate pulmonary reserve to undergo resection. The patient undergoes a right upper lobectomy. All margins are clear, and all peribronchial lymph nodes are negative for tumor within the resected specimen. What is the most reasonable adjuvant therapy for this patient?
• Which of the following statement about tumor markers is correct?
• In a case of Dysgerminoma of ovary tumor markers is likely to be raised.one of the following
• A 63-year-old man is evaluated because of new-onset hemoptysis and a 100-pack-year smoking history. Chest radiograph shows a 4-cm right perihilar mass, and bronchoscopic biopsy and cytologic evaluation of sputum confirm squamous cell carcinoma. There are no significant findings on physical examination, and the patient reports no weight loss.Complete blood count is normal except for a serum alkaline phosphatase level at 110 U/L. CT scans of the chest and abdomen show no mediastinal adenopathy. Results of a positron emission tomography scan are negative, except for the right perihilar mass.In which of the following situations would surgical therapy be offered?
• A 65-year-old man has a routine screening examination, and his serum prostate- specific antigen (PSA) level is found to be 6.7 ng/mL. Digital rectal examination reveals a mildly enlarged prostate gland, but no discrete nodules. One year ago, his PSA was 2.1 ng/mL. The patient is referred to a urologist who performs a biopsy of the gland. Biopsy specimen shows adenocarcinoma of the prostate with a Gleason score of 9. Which of the following best describes his prognosis on the basis of his Gleason score?
• A 68-year-old man presents to his primary care physician for a routine physical examination. The patient‟s medical history is significant for hypertension. The patient is found to have guaiac-positive stools and is subsequently referred for colonoscopy. Colonoscopy reveals a “golf ball”-size, near-obstructing tumor in the descending colon, not admitting the scope. The biopsy is positive for adenocarcinoma of the colon. Which of the following is the next step in the management of this patient?
• A 50 year old male presents with widespread lymphadenopathy. He has had recent fever and weight loss. A trucut biopsy reveals a malignant tumor with the following phenotype; Cytokeratin negative, CLA positive, CD3 positive, and CD30 positive