In which of the following segments of the gastrointestinal tract is primary carcinoma least common?

Related MCQs

• A 59-year-old man was referred because of a change in bowel habit. He had noticed no alteration in stool calibre, gastrointestinal bleeding or unintended weight loss. There was no family history of colonic polyps or gastrointestinal malignancy. Physical examination was normal. A rectal examination revealed no masses. A sigmoidoscopy revealed a 4-mm polyp in the mid-rectum, which was removed with forceps, and histology revealed a tubular adenoma. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
• Primary carcinoma is least common in:
• A 30-year-old woman has a right mastectomy and axillary lymph node dissection for a carcinoma diagnosed by fine needle aspiration cytology. The histologic pattern is that of a poorly differentiated carcinoma that is negative for oestrogen and progesterone receptors, but is positive for HER2/neu. One axillary lymph node demonstrates micro- metastases. Her 32 year old sister is found to have a similar lesion. Which of the following statements regarding risk factors for this lesion is the most appropriate?
• Which is most characteristic of carcinoma of the cecum or right colon (in contrast to carcinoma of the rectum)?
• In contrast to carcinoma of the right colon, carcinoma of the left colon tends to be associated with:
• A 68-year-old man is evaluated because of worsening chronic epigastric pain. He now has fatigue and early satiety. He has iron deficiency anemia. Results of upper gastrointestinal endoscopy reveal diffuse gastritis, along with mucosal thickening in the gastric antrum associated with a mass lesion. Abundant Helicobacter pylon organisms are noted on biopsy, and histologic evaluation of the mass lesion shows it to be a gastric lymphoma of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) type. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patients illness?
• Primary surgery is most appropriate for patients with which of the following types of squamous cell carcinoma?
• A well-lateralized, stage T3N0 squamous cell carcinoma of the nasopharynx has at least a 15% risk of metastasis to the:
• A 28-year-old woman was found to have stage IV Burkitt‟s lymphoma. Her renal function was normal and a staging CT scan had shown no abnormality of the renal tract. Three days later, when she was about to start chemotherapy, she developed a temperature of 39.0°C with rigors and was treated with imipenem. Investigations (the following day): serum sodium 138 mmol/L (137–144) serum potassium 6.2 mmol/L (3.5–4.9) serum creatinine 215 μmol/L (60–110) serum corrected calcium 1.60 mmol/L (2.20–2.60) serum phosphate 1.52 mmol/L (0.8–1.4) serum lactate dehydrogenase 1238 U/L (10–250) serum urate 0.69 mmol/L (0.19–0.36) What is the most likely cause of the renal impairment?
• A 64-year-old man is evaluated because of fatigue and shortness of breath on exertion. He has had three episodes of urinary tract infection in the past 7 months. On physical examination, he has pallor but is otherwise normal. He denies blood loss, and his stool is negative for occult blood on three measurements. He is anemic (hemoglobin 8.4 g/dL) with normochromic, normocytic indices, and his serum creatinine level is 2.9 mg/dL. The total serum protein level is elevated, and the serum albumin level is low normal. His serum calcium level is 11.8 mg/dL.What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?