Persistent elevation of serum carcinoembryonic antigen following surgical resection of a carcinoma of the colon suggests:

Related MCQs

• A 28-year-old woman was found to have stage IV Burkitt‟s lymphoma. Her renal function was normal and a staging CT scan had shown no abnormality of the renal tract. Three days later, when she was about to start chemotherapy, she developed a temperature of 39.0°C with rigors and was treated with imipenem. Investigations (the following day): serum sodium 138 mmol/L (137–144) serum potassium 6.2 mmol/L (3.5–4.9) serum creatinine 215 μmol/L (60–110) serum corrected calcium 1.60 mmol/L (2.20–2.60) serum phosphate 1.52 mmol/L (0.8–1.4) serum lactate dehydrogenase 1238 U/L (10–250) serum urate 0.69 mmol/L (0.19–0.36) What is the most likely cause of the renal impairment?
• A 50-year-old perimenopausal woman is evaluated because of abdominal swelling. CT scan of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis shows mesenteric lymphadenopathy and a small amount of ascites but no ovarian masses. Needle biopsy specimen shows adenocarcinoma; the tumor is found to be negative for hormone receptors. The serum carcinoembryonic antigen level is normal at 2.0 ng/mL and the serum CA-125 is 1200 ng/mL (elevated). What is the best next step in her treatment?
• In contrast to carcinoma of the right colon, carcinoma of the left colon tends to be associated with:
• A 64-year-old man is evaluated because of fatigue and shortness of breath on exertion. He has had three episodes of urinary tract infection in the past 7 months. On physical examination, he has pallor but is otherwise normal. He denies blood loss, and his stool is negative for occult blood on three measurements. He is anemic (hemoglobin 8.4 g/dL) with normochromic, normocytic indices, and his serum creatinine level is 2.9 mg/dL. The total serum protein level is elevated, and the serum albumin level is low normal. His serum calcium level is 11.8 mg/dL.What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?
• A 69-year old black man is evaluated because of a history of steadily increasing upper abdominal pain, loss of appetite, and a 4.6-kg (1 0-Ib) weight loss over the past several months. He recently noticed that the color of his urine was darker than usual. The patient had a 40-pack-year history of cigarette smoking, but quit smoking 4 years ago. He has hypertension that is controlled by medical management. Laboratory studies: Hemoglobin 11.5 g/dL Serum total bilirubin 3.3 g/dL Serum albumin 3.2 g/dL Serum aspartate aminotransferase 105 U/L Serum alanine aminotransferase 95 U/L Urinalysis shows elevated bilirubin. CT scan of the abdomen shows dilation of the common bile and pancreatic ducts, a 5.2-cm mass in the head of the pancreas, and compression of the superior mesenteric vein. A fine-needle aspirate of the mass reveals atypical cells that are suspicious for malignancy. What is the most appropriate course of action?
• 4- A 64-year-old man is found to have squamous cell bronchogenic carcinoma. Which of the following statements is true regarding surgical resection?
• A 61-year-old man with a 120-pack-year smoking history is evaluated for a persistent and worsening cough and found to have a 3-cm mass in the right upper lobe on chest radiography. CT-directed needle biopsy is positive for squamous cell carcinoma. CT scans of the abdomen and pelvis, bone scan, and MRI of the head are negative for metastatic disease. Positron emission tomography scan shows uptake only in the right upper lobe mass, and pulmonary function tests indicate that the patient has adequate pulmonary reserve to undergo resection. The patient undergoes a right upper lobectomy. All margins are clear, and all peribronchial lymph nodes are negative for tumor within the resected specimen. What is the most reasonable adjuvant therapy for this patient?
• A 63-year-old man is evaluated because of new-onset hemoptysis and a 100-pack-year smoking history. Chest radiograph shows a 4-cm right perihilar mass, and bronchoscopic biopsy and cytologic evaluation of sputum confirm squamous cell carcinoma. There are no significant findings on physical examination, and the patient reports no weight loss.Complete blood count is normal except for a serum alkaline phosphatase level at 110 U/L. CT scans of the chest and abdomen show no mediastinal adenopathy. Results of a positron emission tomography scan are negative, except for the right perihilar mass.In which of the following situations would surgical therapy be offered?
• A 63-year-old man is evaluated because of a several-month history of increasing fatigue and some vague upper abdominal discomfort. His medical history includes gastroesophageal reflux disease, coronary artery disease, and clinical depression, all of which are well controlled with medications. The patient has been working full time. On physical examination, he has mild hepatomegaly. His hemoglobin is 12.2 g/dL, serum alkaline phosphatase level 280 U/L, and serum aspartate aminotransferase level 65 U/L. CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis shows multiple hepatic lesions ranging in size from 1 cm to 4 cm; mesenteric, para-aortic, and paracaval lymphadenopathy, and a colonic mass at the splenic flexure. Colonoscopy reveals a nonobstructing, non bleeding lesion; biopsy shows it to be poorly differentiated adenocarcinoma. Fine- needle aspiration of one of the liver lesions confirms the presence of malignant cells consistent with a primary colon cancer. What is the most appropriate next step in
• Which is most characteristic of carcinoma of the cecum or right colon (in contrast to carcinoma of the rectum)?