80+ The Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act 1952 Solved MCQs

1.

PF act is applicable to an establishment engaged in any industry specified in ……...

A. Schedule II
B. Hazardous Industries List
C. Schedule IX
D. Schedule I
Answer» D. Schedule I
2.

Minimum ……….. persons must be employed in as establishment for the applicability of the PF act.

A. 15
B. 20
C. 35
D. 50
Answer» B. 20
3.

The term “Appropriate Government” is defined in which section of the PF Act?

A. Section 2(a)
B. Section 2 (b)
C. Section 2 (d)
D. Section 2 (e)
Answer» A. Section 2(a)
4.

According to Section 2(a) which is the appropriate Government for a mine in a given state?

A. State Government
B. Central Government
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Answer» B. Central Government
5.

Section 2(aa) of the PF act defines the term ……………

A. Basic Wages
B. Authorised Officer
C. Government
D. None of these
Answer» B. Authorised Officer
6.

Deputy Provident Fund Commissioner is an authorised officer.

A. True
B. False
C. none
D. all
Answer» A. True
7.

The term “Basic Wages” is defined in which section of the Provident Fund Act?

A. Section 2(g)
B. Section 2(d)
C. Section 2(b)
D. None of these
Answer» C. Section 2(b)
8.

Bonus is part of Basic Wages as defined in the respective section in the PF Act.

A. True
B. False
C. none
D. all
Answer» B. False
9.

The term contribution is defined in the section ………

A. Section 2-bb
B. Section 2-bc
C. Section 2-cc
D. Section 2-c
Answer» D. Section 2-c
10.

Section 2(d) of the Provident Fund Act defines ………

A. Hazardous Process
B. Employee
C. Employment
D. Controlled Industry
Answer» D. Controlled Industry
11.

The term “Employer” is defined in the section ……….. of the PF Act.

A. 2(e)
B. 2(g)
C. 2(f)
D. 2(m)
Answer» A. 2(e)
12.

Can an agent, of the owner of a factory, be termed as an employer?

A. Yes
B. No
C. none
D. all
Answer» A. Yes
13.

The term “Employee” is defined in the section …… of the PF Act, 1952.

A. 2(ab)
B. 2(g)
C. 2(f)
D. 2(d)
Answer» C. 2(f)
14.

A person employed through a contractor will not be considered as an employee of the establishment.

A. True
B. False
C. none
D. all
Answer» B. False
15.

A person engaged as an apprentice under the Apprentices Act, 1961 will not be considered as an employee.

A. True
B. False
C. none
D. all
Answer» A. True
16.

The term “Exempted Employee” is defined under section ……. of the PF Act, 1952

A. 2 (gg)
B. 2(hh)
C. 2(ff)
D. 2(cc)
Answer» C. 2(ff)
17.

An employee is said to be exempted if the exemption is granted under section………

A. 26
B. 17
C. 14
D. 20
Answer» B. 17
18.

The term “Exempted Establishment” is defined under which section of the EPF Act, 1952?

A. 2(aaa)
B. 2(ee)
C. 2(j)
D. 2(fff)
Answer» D. 2(fff)
19.

Section 2(g) of the PF Act defines ………………

A. Non-Exemption
B. Exemption
C. Factory
D. Exempted Job
Answer» C. Factory
20.

The term “Fund” is defined under section ………. of the PF Act, 1952

A. 2(i)
B. 2(h)
C. 2(k)
D. None of these
Answer» B. 2(h)
21.

Under the PF Act, 1952 “Insurance Fund” means ……………

A. Unit Linked Insurance Plan
B. Deposit Linked Insurance Fund
C. Employees’ Group Accident Insurance
D. Medical Insurance Fund
Answer» B. Deposit Linked Insurance Fund
22.

The scheme defined under section 2(i-b) of the PF Act, 1952 is ……………..

A. Pension Scheme
B. Provident Fund Scheme
C. Family Pension Scheme
D. Insurance Scheme
Answer» D. Insurance Scheme
23.

The section 2(i-a) of PF Act, 1952 defines………..

A. Member
B. Insurance
C. Insurance Fund
D. None of these
Answer» C. Insurance Fund
24.

The Insurance Scheme is framed under sub-section (1) of the Section ……… of the PF Act, 1952.

A. 8-A
B. 7-B
C. 6-C
D. 5-D
Answer» C. 6-C
25.

The term “Member” is defined in the section ………… of the PF Act, 1952.

A. 2(j)
B. 2(u)
C. 2(m)
D. 2(p)
Answer» A. 2(j)
26.

Section 2(k-A) of the PF Act, 1952 defines …………..

A. Occupier of the factory
B. Pension Fund
C. Establishment
D. Pension Scheme
Answer» B. Pension Fund
27.

The Employees’ Pension Fund is established under sub-section (2) of the section ………

A. 8-A
B. 7-A
C. 6-A
D. 5-A
Answer» C. 6-A
28.

Section 2(kb) of the PF Act, 1952 defines ……….

A. Recovery Amount
B. Recovery Office
C. Recover Officer
D. Repayment Amount
Answer» C. Recover Officer
29.

Section 2(ll) of the PF Act, 1952 defines …………

A. Superannuation
B. Annual Salary
C. Scheme Policies
D. Recovery
Answer» A. Superannuation
30.

The Employees’ Provident Funds Appellate Tribunal which is constituted under sec 7-D is defined under which section?

A. 2(j)
B. 2(k)
C. 2(l)
D. 2(m)
Answer» D. 2(m)
31.

Which of the following statements about The Employees’
Provident Funds and (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act are true?
a. The Act is not applicable to cooperative societies employing less than 50 persons working with the aid of power.
b. It makes provision for pension scheme, including family pension.
c. There is no wage limit to be covered under the Act.
d. The Act has a provision relating to Employees’ Deposit-linked Insurance Scheme.

A. a, b & d
B. a & c
C. a, c & d
D. b, c & d
Answer» A. a, b & d
32.

What is the present wage limit to be eligible to be covered under the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952?

A. Rs. 12,500
B. Rs. 15,000
C. Rs. 6,500
D. Rs. 6,000
Answer» B. Rs. 15,000
33.

What are the emoluments earned by the employees which are not not come under the definition of 'Basic Wages' in Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952
(i) All emoluments which are earned by an employee while on duty or on leave or on holidays with wages in either case in accordance with the terms of the contract of employment and which are paid or payable in cash to him
(ii)The cash value of any food concession.
(iii) Any dearness allowance, house-rent allowance, overtime allowance, bonus, commission or other similar allowance payable to the employee in respect of his employment or of work done in such employment;
(iv) Any presents made by the employer;

A. i & iii
B. ii, iii & iv
C. i, ii & iii
D. ii & iv
Answer» B. ii, iii & iv
34.

The Act is applicable to every establishment which is a factory engaged in any industry specified in Schedule I and in which -------- twenty persons are employed

A. 15 or more
B. 20 or more
C. 10 or more
D. 20
Answer» B. 20 or more
35.

The chairman and members of Central Board constituted under Employees Provident Fund are appointed by

A. Supreme Court
B. State Government
C. Central Government
D. None of the above
Answer» C. Central Government
36.

Under this act, how many members are appointed by the Central Government in Central Board representing employees in the establishments to which the Scheme applies

A. 15
B. 10
C. 12
D. 20
Answer» B. 10
37.

The accounts of the Central Board is audited annually by

A. Central Provident Fund Commissioner
B. Any auditor appointed by Central Government
C. Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
D. Any auditor appointed by the Chairman of Central Board
Answer» C. Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
38.

The contribution which shall be paid by the employer to the Fund shall be

A. 5%
B. 7%
C. 12%
D. 10%
Answer» C. 12%
39.

An employer who contravenes or makes default in complying with the provisions of section 6 of this act, shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to _____ years

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
Answer» C. 3
40.

This Act shall not apply to any establishment registered under the Co-operative Societies Act, 1912 (2 of 1912), employing less than ------- persons and working without the aid of power

A. 100
B. 70
C. 50
D. 20
Answer» C. 50
41.

No court inferior to that of ......................class shall try any offence under this Act

A. Sureme Court
B. Presidency Magistrate or a Magistrate of the first class
C. Musiff Court
D. High Court
Answer» B. Presidency Magistrate or a Magistrate of the first class
42.

Which of the following statements about Central Board are true?
(i) The Central Provident Fund Commissioner is the Ex officio member of the Central Board
(ii) The Central Board shall maintain proper accounts of its income and expenditure in such form and in such manner as the Central Government may, after consultation with the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India, specify in the Scheme
(iii) Central Board shall submit annual report of its work and activities to the Central Government

A. i & ii
B. i & iii
C. ii & iii
D. i, ii & iii
Answer» D. i, ii & iii
43.

Employees’ Provident Funds Appellate Tribunal was constituted under Section ....... the this act

A. 6D
B. 7C
C. 6A
D. 7D
Answer» D. 7D
44.

Under this act, “Insurance Fund” means ……………

A. Employees’ Group Accident Insurance
B. Unit Linked Insurance Plan
C. Deposit Linked Insurance Scheme
D. Medical Insurance Fund
Answer» C. Deposit Linked Insurance Scheme
45.

The Central Government has amended the ceiling for contributions under the Employees' Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952 (EPF Act) and the Employees' Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Scheme, 1952 (EPF Scheme) from __________ to __________, with effect from 1 September 2014.

A. Rs. 5000/- to Rs.12000/-
B. Rs. 6500/- to Rs.15000/-
C. Rs. 6500/- to Rs.13000/-
D. Rs. 7500/- to Rs. 15000/-
Answer» B. Rs. 6500/- to Rs.15000/-
46.

Which of the following labour legislations is implemented only by the Central Implementation Machinery?

A. Trade Unions Act
B. Maternity Benefit Act
C. Industrial Disputes Act
D. Employees’ State Insurance Act
Answer» D. Employees’ State Insurance Act
47.

Under Section 2(12) the Act is applicable to non-seasonal factories employing---------- persons

A. 10 or more
B. 25 or more
C. 20 or more
D. 5 or more
Answer» A. 10 or more
48.

Employees’ Deposit Linked Insurance Scheme was introduced in the year

A. 1976
B. 1961
C. 1923
D. 1948
Answer» A. 1976
49.

The Payment of Gratuity Act was introduced in the year

A. 1961
B. 1923
C. 1972
D. 1976
Answer» C. 1972
50.

The Maternity Benefit Act was introduced in the year

A. 1961
B. 1923
C. 1976
D. 1948
Answer» A. 1961
51.

Which of the following benefits is covered under social security schemes?

A. Medical facilities
B. Retirement benefits
C. Compensation facilities
D. All of the above
Answer» D. All of the above
52.

Making peace with employees by fulfilling all their needs without any resistance is the essence of the

A. Appeasement theory
B. Policing theory
C. Benevolence theory
D. Religious theory
Answer» A. Appeasement theory
53.

The age of dependent for obtaining dependent’s benefit under the Employees State Insurance Act has now been enhanced from 18 years to

A. 22 years
B. 24 years
C. 20 years
D. 25 years
Answer» D. 25 years
54.

Employees who are getting a daily average wages up to ________ are exempted from contributing employees’ share of ESI contribution.

A. Rs 70
B. Rs 384.60
C. Rs 100
D. Rs 50
Answer» C. Rs 100
55.

The employer’s share of contribution under the ESI Act is

A. 8.33 %
B. 1.75 %
C. 12 %
D. 4.75%
Answer» D. 4.75%
56.

As per the latest amendment under the ESI Act, 1948 medical treatment is now available to persons under voluntary retirement scheme also.

A. True
B. False
C. Partly True
D. The Act is silent
Answer» A. True
57.

Which of the following legislations in India is governed by a tripartite organisation consisting of representatives of labour, management and Government?

A. Payment of Bonus Act
B. Industrial Disputes Act
C. ESI Act
D. Maternity Benefit Act
Answer» C. ESI Act
58.

What is the wage limit for employees to be covered under the Employee State Insurance Act as per the latest amendment?

A. Rs. 25,000 per month
B. Rs. 18,000 per month
C. Rs. 15,000 per month
D. Rs. 20,000 per month
Answer» C. Rs. 15,000 per month
59.

Employees’ share of contribution under the ESI Act is

A. 1.75 %
B. 4.75%
C. 12%
D. 8.33%
Answer» A. 1.75 %
60.

Which of the following legislations extends some sort of benefit to retired employees also?

A. Employees’ State Insurance Act
B. Payment of Bonus Act
C. Maternity Benefit Act
D. Employees’ Compensation Act
Answer» A. Employees’ State Insurance Act
61.

’Unemployment allowance’ payable is stated in

A. Factories Act, 1948
B. Unorganised Sector Workers Social Security Act, 2005
C. Employee State Insurance Act, 1948
D. None of the above
Answer» C. Employee State Insurance Act, 1948
62.

Which of the following legislations was based on the recommendations of the B.P. Adarkar Committee Report?

A. Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948
B. Employees’ Provident Funds Act
C. Maternity Benefit Act
D. Employees’ Compensation Act
Answer» A. Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948
63.

Who is an ‘exempted employee’ under the Employee’s state Insurance Act, 1948?

A. Employee who is not liable under the Act to pay the employee’s contribution
B. Minor employee who is not liable under the Act to pay the employee’s contribution
C. Employee who is minor
D. None of the above
Answer» A. Employee who is not liable under the Act to pay the employee’s contribution
64.

The Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923, the Maternity Benefit Act, 1965 and the Employees State Insurance Act, 1948

A. If the Workmen’s Compensation Act and the Maternity Benefit Act are applicable, the Employees State Insurance Act is not applicable.
B. Together can be applicable
C. The Maternity Benefit Act and the Employees State Insurance Act can be applicable at a time
D. The Workmen’s Compensation Act and the Employees State Insurance Act can be applicable at a time.
Answer» A. If the Workmen’s Compensation Act and the Maternity Benefit Act are applicable, the Employees State Insurance Act is not applicable.
65.

What is the content of the Schedule I of the ESI Act, 1948?

A. List of occupational diseases.
B. List of injuries deemed to result in permanent total disablement.
C. List of injuries deemed to result in permanent partial disablement.
D. None of the above
Answer» D. None of the above
66.

Under ESI Act, 1948 a member of the Corporation, Standing Committee or the Medical Council shall cease to be a member of the body if he fails to attend

A. Three consecutive meetings
B. Three meetings intermittently
C. Four consecutive meetings
D. Two consecutive meetings
Answer» A. Three consecutive meetings
67.

Which of the following benefits have not been provided under the Employee’s State Insurance Act, 1948?

A. Disablement Benefit
B. Children’s’ Allowance
C. Sickness Benefit
D. Unemployment Allowance
Answer» B. Children’s’ Allowance
68.

Which one of the following Labour Legislations provides comprehensive benefits to industrial workers in India?

A. Maternity Benefit Act
B. Employees’ State Insurance Act
C. Employee Provident Funds Act
D. Employees’ Compensation Act
Answer» B. Employees’ State Insurance Act
69.

An employer is liable to pay his contribution in respect of every employee and deduct employees contribution from wages bill and shall pay these contributions at the specified rates to the Corporation within -----------days of the last day of the Calendar month in which the contributions fall due.

A. 21
B. 30
C. 7
D. 15
Answer» A. 21
70.

Dependants’ Benefit paid at the rate of ----------% of wage in the form of monthly payment to the dependants of a deceased Insured person in cases where death occurs due to employment injury or occupational hazards.

A. 80%
B. 50%
C. 90%
D. 75%
Answer» C. 90%
71.

If an Insured Women or an I.P. in respect of his wife confinement occurs at a place where necessary medical facilities under ESI Scheme are not available, how much amount shall be payable per case for two confinements only.

A. Rs. 5000/-
B. Rs. 7500/-
C. Rs. 2500/-
D. Rs.10000/-
Answer» A. Rs. 5000/-
72.

How much amount is payable to the dependents for funeral expenses?

A. Rs.15,000/-
B. Rs.10000/-
C. Rs.12000/-
D. Rs.5000/-
Answer» B. Rs.10000/-
73.

Minimum wage limit for Physically Disabled Persons for availing ESIC Benefits is

A. Rs.20000/-
B. Rs.50000/-
C. Rs.15000/-
D. Rs.25000/-
Answer» D. Rs.25000/-
74.

Maternity Benefit for confinement/pregnancy is payable for three months, which is extendable by further one month on medical advice at the rate of full wage subject to contribution for -------- days in the preceding year.

A. 65 days
B. 70 days
C. 91 days
D. 75 days
Answer» B. 70 days
75.

Enhanced Sickness Benefit equal to full wage is payable to insured persons undergoing sterilisation for --------- days for male and ________ female workers respectively.

A. 7 days and 14 days
B. 14 days and 7 days
C. 5 days and 10 days
D. 6 days and 14 days
Answer» A. 7 days and 14 days
76.

Extended Sickness Benefit(ESB) is extendable upto two years in the case of 34 malignant and long-term diseases at an enhanced rate of -------- percent of wages.

A. 90%
B. 85%
C. 75%
D. 80%
Answer» D. 80%
77.

In order to qualify for sickness benefit, the insured worker is required to contribute for ------- days in a contribution period of 6 months.

A. 78 days
B. 60 days
C. 75 days
D. 91 days
Answer» A. 78 days
78.

Sickness benefit in the form of cash compensation at the rate of 70 per cent of wages is payable to insured workers during the periods of certified sickness for a maximum of ------ days in a year.

A. 90 days
B. 91 days
C. 75 days
D. 100 days
Answer» B. 91 days
79.

Medical care is provided to retired and permanently disabled insured persons and their spouses on payment of a token annual premium of ----------

A. Rs.125/-
B. Rs.100/-
C. Rs.120/-
D. Rs.75/-
Answer» C. Rs.120/-
80.

The State Governments, as per provisions of the Act, contribute 1/8th of the expenditure of medical benefit within a per capita ceiling of --------- per Insured Person per annum.

A. Rs.1000/-
B. Rs.2000/-
C. Rs.850/-
D. Rs.1500/-
Answer» D. Rs.1500/-
81.

The employee welfare facilities available outside the organisation are called

A. extra-mural facilities
B. extravagance
C. intra-mural facilities
D. None of the above
Answer» A. extra-mural facilities
82.

The employee welfare facilities available inside the organization are called

A. intra-mural facilities
B. extravagance
C. extra-mural facilities
D. None of the above
Answer» A. intra-mural facilities
83.

Who among the following has the responsibility for employee welfare?

A. State government
B. Central government
C. Employers
D. All of the above
Answer» D. All of the above
84.

An inclination to do something good for others can influence the employers to undertake welfare facilities. This is the assumption of the

A. Benevolence theory
B. Appeasement theory
C. Policing theory
D. Religious theory
Answer» A. Benevolence theory
85.

In the absence of statutory requirements, the employers may not provide even the basic facilities to the employees. This is the basic assumption of the

A. Religious theory
B. Policing theory
C. Benevolence theory
D. None of the above
Answer» B. Policing theory
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