A female presents with shortness of breath. CXR is shown with whiteout of Left lung. Told neurone-specific enolase +ve, next best step in management:

Related MCQs

• A 59-year-old man who is a heavy smoker presents with cough, shortness of breath, and a sensation of head fullness. Physical examination is notable for cervical venous distention and facial edema. A chest radiograph shows a widened superior mediastinum. What is the most appropriate initial intervention for this patient?
• Pre-menopausal woman found to have left axillary and supraclavicular nodes. Biopsy showed poorly differentiated cancer, oestrogen receptor poor. She has no other Symptoms, examination is otherwise normal and CXR and mammogram are normal. Next step:
• Middle aged smoker. Whole of left lung – white, collapse. Bronchoscopy shows an undifferentiated carcinoma in the left main bronchus. Presents with cough and haemoptysis. Small left clavicular lymph node palpable. Treatment:
• A 40-year-old woman was treated for breast cancer 5 years ago by lumpectomy, breast irradiation, and 3 months of chemotherapy. Her original cancer was negative for estrogen and progesterone receptors and unequivocally positive for HER2. Her periods stopped during chemotherapy but resumed 4 months later, and she remains premenopausal now. She is evaluated now because of pain in her back, a nagging cough, and fatigue. Physical examination shows palpable skin nodules over the affected breast, axillary adenopathy, and dullness to percussion, and decreased breath sounds in the base of the left lung; her liver edge is palpable below the right costochondral border. Liver function values are approximately twice normal; serum bilirubin is normal. Radiograph of the chest shows multiple pulmonary nodules and a left pleural effusion confirmed by CT, which also shows the liver nodules. Bone scan and MRI are consistent with bone metastases. Biopsy of one of the skin lesions is consistent with metast
• A 78-year-old man is evaluated because of shortness of breath of acute onset. The patient reports a 13.6-kg (30-Ib) weight loss, vague upper abdominal discomfort, nausea, loss of appetite, and fatigue. He has hypertension and symptomatic atherosclerotic coronary artery disease despite optimal medical management. Even before the recent episode of dyspnea, his physical activity has been limited; he spends most of the day resting either in bed or in a chair. Laboratory studies: Hemoglobin 10.5 g/dL Serum albumin 2.6 g/dL Serum alanine aminotransferase 65 U/L Serum aspartate aminotransferase 78 U/L CA 19-94500 U/L Arterial oxygen saturation 85% by pulse oximetry Spiral CT scan of the chest shows a pulmonary embolism. The patient is hospitalized for anticoagulation and oxygen therapy and gradually improves. Subsequent CT of the abdomen shows a 4-cm mass in the tail of the pancreas and numerous low-attenuation lesions in the liver. CT-guided biopsy of the hepatic lesions and the pancreatic m
• A 70-year-old man with an 80-pack-year smoking history is evaluated because of a chronic cough of 6 months duration. Chest radiograph shows a 3-cm mass in the left perihilar region, and bronchoscopic biopsy confirms poorly differentiated adenocarcinoma. There are no significant findings on physical examination, and all blood studies are normal. Bone scan and CT scan of the head are normal, but CT scans of the chest and abdomen show the mass and two 1-cm nodules in the right lobe of the liver. Intravenous contrast perfusion of the two nodules during the CT scan is not suspicious for hemangioma. Positron emission tomography scan shows distinct uptake in the left perihilar mass but only faint focal activity in the right lobe of the liver.Pulmonary function tests show mild obstructive disease. What is the best next step in this patient‟s management?
• A 64-year-old man is evaluated because of fatigue and shortness of breath on exertion. He has had three episodes of urinary tract infection in the past 7 months. On physical examination, he has pallor but is otherwise normal. He denies blood loss, and his stool is negative for occult blood on three measurements. He is anemic (hemoglobin 8.4 g/dL) with normochromic, normocytic indices, and his serum creatinine level is 2.9 mg/dL. The total serum protein level is elevated, and the serum albumin level is low normal. His serum calcium level is 11.8 mg/dL.What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?
• A 42-year-old woman is evaluated because she has noticed a thickening in her left breast over the past few weeks. She noticed it a few months ago, but because it seems to come and go, she put off seeking medical attention. She is premenopausal. She had menarche at age 13 years. When she was 35 years, she had one child (whom she breast-fed) after a normal first full-term pregnancy. She took oral contraceptives for 10 years before her pregnancy. She has no known radiation exposure and no family history of breast cancer. On physical examination, there appears to be some asymmetry in breast tissue density in the upper outer quadrant of the left breast compared with the right one, but no discrete mass. There are no palpable lymph nodes. Results of a mammogram are negative. What would be the most appropriate next step in this patients management?
• A 32-year-old woman is evaluated because of a painless swelling in her lower neck. She noted the swelling about 3 weeks ago and now thinks it is getting larger. She has no history of foreign travel. She smokes but does not drink alcohol. She owns a cat. She has not had fever or unexplained weight loss, but has had night sweats twice in the past week. She has been feeling fatigued lately and has noted dyspnea on exertion. On physical examination, a 3 X 5-cm left supraclavicular lymph node is palpable. It is firm but not rock-hard and is nontender. The remainder of her physical examination and results of a complete blood count are normal. What is the best next step in this patient‟s management?
• A 68-year-old man with locally advanced non-small-cell lung cancer is evaluated because of the new onset of low back pain over the past 2 weeks. It is relieved with ibuprofen, and his only other symptom is mild fatigue. The patient completed combined chemotherapy and radiation therapy 6 months ago, and restaging scans afterward showed marked shrinkage of the right perihilar mass. He has no muscle weakness. Plain radiograph of the thoracic and lumbar spine shows no abnormalities other than signs of mild osteoarthritis. Neurologic examination is unremarkable. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?