McqMate
1. |
In cardiac glycoside, position of β- unsaturated lactone ring is |
A. | C – 3 |
B. | C – 14 |
C. | C – 17 |
D. | C – 23 |
Answer» C. C – 17 |
2. |
Activity of cardiac glycoside depends to a great extent on |
A. | 23rd carbonyl oxygen |
B. | C – 3 OH |
C. | Side chain at C – 14 |
D. | Side chain at C – 17 |
Answer» A. 23rd carbonyl oxygen |
3. |
Angiotensin II causes rise in blood pressure by: |
A. | Direct vasoconstriction |
B. | Releasing adrenaline from adrenal medulla |
C. | Increasing central sympathetic tone |
D. | All of the above |
Answer» D. All of the above |
4. |
Digitalis slows the heart in congestive heart failure by: |
A. | Increasing vagal tone |
B. | Decreasing sympathetic overactivity |
C. | Direct depression of sinoatrial node |
D. | All of the above |
Answer» D. All of the above |
5. |
Methyldopa is |
A. | Parasympathomimetic |
B. | Parasympatholytic |
C. | Sympathomimetic |
D. | Sympatholytic |
Answer» D. Sympatholytic |
6. |
Losartan is |
A. | Renin release blocker |
B. | ACE inhibitor |
C. | Angiotension I blocker |
D. | Angiotension II blocker |
Answer» C. Angiotension I blocker |
7. |
IUPAC name of Dobutamine is |
A. | 4-(2-{[4-(4-hydroxyphenyl)butan-2-yl]amino}ethyl)benzene-1,2-diol |
B. | 4-(2-{[4-(4-hydroxyphenyl)butan-2-yl]amino}methyl)benzene-1,2-diol |
C. | 4-(2-{[4-(4-hydroxyphenyl)propan-2-yl]amino}ethyl)benzene-1,2-diol |
D. | 4-(2-{[4-(4-hydroxyphenyl) propan -2-yl]amino}methyl)benzene-1,2-diol |
Answer» A. 4-(2-{[4-(4-hydroxyphenyl)butan-2-yl]amino}ethyl)benzene-1,2-diol |
8. |
1-[4-(2-methoxyethyl)phenoxy]-3-[(propan-2-yl)amino]propan-2-ol is IUPAC name of |
A. | Atenolol |
B. | Metoprolol |
C. | Captopril |
D. | Hydralazine |
Answer» B. Metoprolol |
9. |
Hydralazine is synthesized from |
A. | 2-formyl benzoic acid and Hydrazine |
B. | Methacrylic acid |
C. | 2-azidoethanol |
D. | o-nitro toluene |
Answer» A. 2-formyl benzoic acid and Hydrazine |
10. |
The principal action common to all class I antiarrhythmic drugs is: |
A. | Na+ channel blockade |
B. | K+ channel opening |
C. | Depression of impulse conduction |
D. | Prolongation of effective refractory period |
Answer» A. Na+ channel blockade |
11. |
Identify high ceiling diuretic. |
A. | Chlorthiazide |
B. | Furosemide |
C. | Spironolactone |
D. | Amiloride |
Answer» B. Furosemide |
12. |
_____________ is carboxylic acid moiety containing. |
A. | Captopril |
B. | Enalapril |
C. | Fosinopril |
D. | Bepridil |
Answer» B. Enalapril |
13. |
Given structure is of |
A. | Captopril |
B. | Enalapril |
C. | Fosinopril |
D. | Bepridil |
Answer» B. Enalapril |
14. |
_____________ is sulfhydryl moiety containing. |
A. | Captopril |
B. | Enalapril |
C. | Fosinopril |
D. | Bepridil |
Answer» A. Captopril |
15. |
Given drug is |
A. | α blocker |
B. | β blocker |
C. | K+ channel blocker |
D. | Ca++ channel blocker |
Answer» D. Ca++ channel blocker |
16. |
The antiarrhythmic drug which decreases both rate of depolarization (phase 0) as well as rate of repolarization (phase 3) of myocardial fibres is: |
A. | Lignocaine |
B. | Propranolol |
C. | Quinidine |
D. | Verapamil |
Answer» C. Quinidine |
17. |
The following drug is used to reduce the frequency of angina pectoris as well as to terminate an acute attack: |
A. | Isosorbide dinitrate |
B. | Pentaerythritol tetranitrate |
C. | Diltiazem |
D. | Dipyridamole |
Answer» A. Isosorbide dinitrate |
18. |
Blood flow in the following vascular bed generally decreases under the influence of glyceryl trinitrate: |
A. | Coronary |
B. | Cutaneous |
C. | Renal |
D. | Cranial |
Answer» C. Renal |
19. |
Phase II in cardiac action potential is |
A. | Fast depolarization |
B. | Partial repolarization |
C. | Plateau |
D. | Repolarization |
Answer» C. Plateau |
20. |
In HMG-CoA-Reductase Inhibitors, Lactone ring may be substituted at |
A. | C- 15 |
B. | C- 16 |
C. | C-17 |
D. | C -18 |
Answer» C. C-17 |
21. |
2-(diethylamino)-N-(2,6-dimethylphenyl) Acetamide is IUPAC name of |
A. | Flecainide |
B. | Atenolol |
C. | Verapamil |
D. | Lignocaine |
Answer» D. Lignocaine |
22. |
Select the organic nitrate which undergoes minimal first-pass metabolism in the liver: |
A. | Glyceryl trinitrate |
B. | Isosorbide dinitrate |
C. | Isosorbide mononitrate |
D. | Erythrityl tetranitrate |
Answer» C. Isosorbide mononitrate |
23. |
The primary mechanism of beneficial effect of glyceryl trinitrate in classical angina pectoris is: |
A. | Increase in total coronary blood flow |
B. | Redistribution of coronary blood flow |
C. | Reduction of cardiac preload |
D. | Reduction of cardiac afterload |
Answer» C. Reduction of cardiac preload |
24. |
Organic nitrates relax vascular smooth muscle by: |
A. | Increasing intracellular cyclic GMP |
B. | Increasing intracellular cyclic AMP |
C. | Decreasing intracellular cyclic AMP |
D. | Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct |
Answer» A. Increasing intracellular cyclic GMP |
25. |
Nitrate tolerance is least likely to develop with the use of: |
A. | Sustained release oral glyceryl trinitrate |
B. | Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate |
C. | Transdermal glyceryl trinitrate |
D. | Oral pentaerythritol tetranitrate |
Answer» B. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate |
26. |
Glyceryl trinitrate is administered by the following routes except: |
A. | Oral |
B. | Sublingual |
C. | Intramuscular |
D. | Intravenous |
Answer» C. Intramuscular |
27. |
Myocardial Na+ channel blockade by lignocaine has the following characteristic: |
A. | It blocks inactivated Na+ channels more than activated channels |
B. | It blocks activated Na+ channels more than inactivated channels |
C. | It delays rate of recovery of Na+ channels |
D. | It produces more prominent blockade of atrial than ventricular Na+ channels |
Answer» A. It blocks inactivated Na+ channels more than activated channels |
28. |
Hypothyroidism is a possible consequence of prolonged therapy with: |
A. | Amiodarone |
B. | Mexiletine |
C. | Sotalol |
D. | Procainamide |
Answer» A. Amiodarone |
29. |
The following is true of procainamide except: |
A. | It generates an active metabolite in the body |
B. | Its plasma half-life is longer than that of quinidine |
C. | On long-term use, it can cause systemic lupus erythematosus like illness |
D. | It is effective in many cases of ventricular extrasystoles, not responding to lignocaine |
Answer» B. Its plasma half-life is longer than that of quinidine |
30. |
The most significant feature of the antiarrhythmic action of is: |
A. | Suppression of phase-4 depolarization in ventricular ectopic foci |
B. | Prolongation of action potential duration |
C. | Prolongation of effective refractory period |
D. | Depression of membrane responsiveness |
Answer» A. Suppression of phase-4 depolarization in ventricular ectopic foci |
31. |
Quinidine is now used primarily for: |
A. | Conversion of atrial fibrillation to sinus rhythm |
B. | Control of ventricular rate in atrial flutter |
C. | Termination of ventricular tachycardia |
D. | Prevention of recurrences of atrial fibrillation/ ventricular tachycardia |
Answer» D. Prevention of recurrences of atrial fibrillation/ ventricular tachycardia |
32. |
The following antiarrhythmic drug has the most prominent anticholinergic action: |
A. | Disopyramide |
B. | Quinidine |
C. | Procainamide |
D. | Lignocaine |
Answer» A. Disopyramide |
33. |
The following is not true about : |
A. | It blocks myocardial Na+ channels primarily in the open state |
B. | It has no effect on myocardial K+ channels |
C. | It produces frequency dependent blockade of myocardial Na+ channels |
D. | It delays recovery of myocardial Na+ channels |
Answer» B. It has no effect on myocardial K+ channels |
34. |
Beneficial effect/effects of diuretics in CHF patients include the following: |
A. | Symptomatic relief |
B. | Regression of pathological changes |
C. | Prolongation of life expectancy |
D. | Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ |
Answer» A. Symptomatic relief |
35. |
Glyceryl trinitrate is used in CHF for: |
A. | Routine treatment of mild to moderate chronic heart failure |
B. | Rapid symptom relief in acute left ventricular failure |
C. | Arresting disease progression |
D. | Both 'A' and 'B' |
Answer» B. Rapid symptom relief in acute left ventricular failure |
36. |
Vasodilators are used to treat: |
A. | Acute heart failure attending myocardial infarction |
B. | Chronic heart failure due to diastolic dysfunction |
C. | Chronic heart failure due to both systolic as well as diastolic dysfunction |
D. | All of the above |
Answer» D. All of the above |
37. |
Given drug is administered by the following routes except: |
A. | Oral |
B. | Sublingual |
C. | Intramuscular |
D. | Intravenous |
Answer» C. Intramuscular |
38. |
Which of the following drugs is most likely to accentuate varient (Prinzmetal) angina? |
A. | Propranolol |
B. | Atenolol |
C. | Verapamil |
D. | Dipyridamole |
Answer» A. Propranolol |
39. |
The following antianginal drug is most likely to produce tachycardia as a side effect: |
A. | Amlodipine |
B. | Nifedipine |
C. | Diltiazem |
D. | Verapamil |
Answer» B. Nifedipine |
40. |
The cardiac response to verapamil and nifedipine in human subjects is: |
A. | Verapamil causes tachycardia while nifedipine causes bradycardia |
B. | Both cause bradycardia |
C. | Verapamil causes bradycardia while nifedipine causes tachycardia |
D. | Both cause tachycardia |
Answer» C. Verapamil causes bradycardia while nifedipine causes tachycardia |
41. |
Propranolol should not be prescribed for a patient of angina pectoris who is already receiving: |
A. | Nifedipine |
B. | Felodipine |
C. | Verapamil |
D. | Isosorbide mononitrate |
Answer» C. Verapamil |
42. |
Given drug is |
A. | Nifedipine |
B. | Felodipine |
C. | Verapamil |
D. | Isosorbide mononitrate |
Answer» C. Verapamil |
43. |
The short acting dihydropyridine preparations can aggravate myocardial ischaemia by invoking: |
A. | Coronary vasospasm |
B. | Thrombus formation |
C. | Vagal activation |
D. | Reflex sympathetic discharge to the heart |
Answer» D. Reflex sympathetic discharge to the heart |
44. |
Which of the following drugs is a potassium channel opener? |
A. | Nicorandil |
B. | Hydralazine |
C. | Glibenclamide |
D. | Amiloride |
Answer» A. Nicorandil |
45. |
The characteristic feature(s) of dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers is/are: |
A. | They have minimal negative inotropic action on the heart |
B. | They have no effect on A-V conduction |
C. | They do not affect the activation-inactivation kinetics of the calcium channels |
D. | All of the above |
Answer» D. All of the above |
46. |
The dihydropyridines block the following type of calcium channels: |
A. | L-type voltage sensitive channels |
B. | T-type voltage sensitive channels |
C. | N-type voltage sensitive channels |
D. | Receptor operated calcium channels |
Answer» A. L-type voltage sensitive channels |
47. |
Select the drug which is a potassium channel opener as well as nitric oxide donor: |
A. | Diazoxide |
B. | Sodium nitroprusside |
C. | Minoxidil |
D. | Nicorandil |
Answer» D. Nicorandil |
48. |
Though nitrates and calcium channel blockers are both vasodilators, they are used concurrently in angina pectoris, because: |
A. | They antagonise each other’s side effects |
B. | Nitrates primarily reduce preload while calcium channel blockers primarily reduce after-load |
C. | Nitrates increase coronary flow while calcium channel blockers reduce cardiac work |
D. | Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct |
Answer» B. Nitrates primarily reduce preload while calcium channel blockers primarily reduce after-load |
49. |
The most likely mechanism of antihypertensive action of thiazide diuretics in the long-term is: |
A. | Reduction of circulating blood volume |
B. | Reduction in cardiac output |
C. | Decreased sympathetic tone |
D. | Reduction in total peripheral vascular resistance and improved compliance of resistance Vessels |
Answer» D. Reduction in total peripheral vascular resistance and improved compliance of resistance Vessels |
50. |
Rapid intravenous injection of clonidine causes rise in BP due to: |
A. | Stimulation of vasomotor centre |
B. | Release of noradrenaline from adrenergic nerve endings |
C. | Agonistic action on vascular α adrenergic receptors |
D. | Cardiac stimulation |
Answer» C. Agonistic action on vascular α adrenergic receptors |
51. |
Methyldopa lowers BP by: |
A. | Inhibiting dopa decarboxylase in adrenergic nerve endings |
B. | Generating α-methyl noradrenaline in brain which reduces sympathetic tone |
C. | Generating α-methyl noradrenaline which acts as a false transmitter in peripheral adrenergic nerve endings |
D. | Activating vascular dopamine receptors |
Answer» B. Generating α-methyl noradrenaline in brain which reduces sympathetic tone |
52. |
Methyldopa differs from clonidine in the following respect: |
A. | It is less likely to cause rebound hypertension on sudden discontinuation |
B. | It does not reduce plasma renin activity |
C. | It has a central as well as peripheral site of antihypertensive action |
D. | It does not produce central side effects |
Answer» A. It is less likely to cause rebound hypertension on sudden discontinuation |
53. |
Used alone the following antihypertensive drug tends to increase cardiac work and can precipitate angina: |
A. | Clonidine |
B. | Hydralazine |
C. | Captopril |
D. | Prazosin |
Answer» B. Hydralazine |
54. |
is a directly acting vasodilator, but is not used alone as an antihypertensive because: |
A. | By itself, it is a low efficacy antihypertensive |
B. | Effective doses cause marked postural hypotension |
C. | Tolerance to the antihypertensive action develops early due to counterregulatory mechanisms |
D. | It primarily reduces systolic blood pressure with little effect on diastolic blood pressure |
Answer» C. Tolerance to the antihypertensive action develops early due to counterregulatory mechanisms |
55. |
Long-term hydralazine therapy is likely to cause: |
A. | Gynaecomastia |
B. | Thrombocytopenia |
C. | Haemolytic anaemia |
D. | Lupus erythematosus |
Answer» D. Lupus erythematosus |
56. |
The following vasodilator(s) act(s) by opening K+ channels in the vascular smooth muscle: |
A. | Dipyridamole |
B. | Minoxidil |
C. | Diazoxide |
D. | Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ |
Answer» D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ |
57. |
Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors are contraindicated in: |
A. | High renin hypertensives |
B. | Diabetics |
C. | Congestive heart failure patients |
D. | Pregnant women |
Answer» D. Pregnant women |
58. |
Secretion of K+ in the late distal tubule and collecting ducts of kidney depends on: |
A. | Intracellular K+ content |
B. | Unabsorbed Na+ load presented to the distal segment |
C. | Aldosterone level |
D. | All of the above |
Answer» D. All of the above |
59. |
Metformin belongs to which class? |
A. | Sulphonylureas |
B. | Meglitinide analogues |
C. | Biguanides |
D. | Thiazolidinediones |
Answer» C. Biguanides |
60. |
Diuretics acting on the ascending limb of loop of Henle are the most efficacious in promoting salt and water excretion because: |
A. | Maximum percentage of salt and water is reabsorbed in this segment |
B. | Reabsorptive capacity of the segments distal to it is limited |
C. | This segment is highly permeable to both salt and water |
D. | This segment is responsible for creating corticomedullary osmotic gradient |
Answer» B. Reabsorptive capacity of the segments distal to it is limited |
61. |
Furosemide acts by inhibiting the following in the renal tubular cell: |
A. | Na+-K+-2Cl– cotransporter |
B. | Na+-Cl– symporter |
C. | Na+-H+ antiporter |
D. | Na+ K+ ATPase |
Answer» A. Na+-K+-2Cl– cotransporter |
62. |
Thiazide diuretics and furosemide have directionally opposite effect on the net renal excretion of the following substance: |
A. | Uric acid |
B. | Calcium |
C. | Magnesium |
D. | Bicarbonate |
Answer» B. Calcium |
63. |
The Na+-Cl– symport in the early distal convoluted tubule of the kidney is inhibited by: |
A. | Thiazides |
B. | Metolazone |
C. | Xipamide |
D. | All of the above |
Answer» D. All of the above |
64. |
Choose the correct statement about thiazide diuretics: |
A. | They act in the proximal convoluted tubule |
B. | They are uricosuric |
C. | They augment corticomedullary osmotic gradient |
D. | They induce diuresis in acidosis as well as alkalosis |
Answer» D. They induce diuresis in acidosis as well as alkalosis |
65. |
Thiazide diuretics enhance K+ elimination in urine primarily by: |
A. | Inhibiting proximal tubular K+ reabsorption |
B. | Inhibiting Na+ K+-2Cl– cotransport in the ascending limb of loop of Henle |
C. | Increasing the availability of Na+ in the distal tubular fluid to exchange with interstitial K+ |
D. | Potentiating the action of aldosterone |
Answer» C. Increasing the availability of Na+ in the distal tubular fluid to exchange with interstitial K+ |
66. |
The primary site of action of thiazide diuretics is: |
A. | Proximal tubule |
B. | Ascending limb of loop of Henle |
C. | Cortical diluting segment |
D. | Collecting ducts |
Answer» C. Cortical diluting segment |
67. |
The most important reason for the thiazides being only moderately efficacious diuretics is: |
A. | About 9/10th of glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed proximal to their site of action |
B. | Compensatory increase in reabsorption at sites not affected by these drugs |
C. | They decrease glomerular filtration |
D. | They have relatively flat dose response curve |
Answer» A. About 9/10th of glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed proximal to their site of action |
68. |
Given drug is |
A. | Hydrochlorthiazide |
B. | Acetazolamide |
C. | Furosemide |
D. | Ethacrinic acid |
Answer» C. Furosemide |
69. |
Long-term thiazide therapy can cause hyperglycaemia by: |
A. | Reducing insulin release |
B. | Interfering with glucose utilization in tissues |
C. | Increasing sympathetic activity |
D. | Increasing corticosteroid secretion |
Answer» A. Reducing insulin release |
70. |
Which of the following is a potassium retaining diuretic: |
A. | Triamterene |
B. | Trimethoprim |
C. | Tizanidine |
D. | Trimetazidine |
Answer» A. Triamterene |
71. |
Choose the correct statement about osmotic diuretics: |
A. | They are large molecular weight substances which form colloidal solution |
B. | Their primary site of action is collecting ducts in the kidney |
C. | They increase water excretion without increasing salt excretion |
D. | They can lower intraocular pressure |
Answer» D. They can lower intraocular pressure |
72. |
The primary mechanism by which antidiuretic hormone reduces urine volume is: |
A. | Decrease in glomerular filtration rate |
B. | Decreased renal blood flow |
C. | Decreased water permeability of descending limb of loop of Henle |
D. | Increased water permeability of collecting duct cells |
Answer» D. Increased water permeability of collecting duct cells |
73. |
The primary mechanism by which heparin prevents coagulation of blood is: |
A. | Direct inhibition of prothrombin to thrombin conversion |
B. | Facilitation of antithrombin III mediated inhibition of factor Xa and thrombin |
C. | Activation of antithrombin III to inhibit factors IX and XI |
D. | Inhibition of factors XIIa and XIIIa |
Answer» B. Facilitation of antithrombin III mediated inhibition of factor Xa and thrombin |
74. |
Low concentrations of heparin selectively interfere with the following coagulation pathway(s): |
A. | Intrinsic pathway |
B. | Extrinsic pathway |
C. | Common pathway |
D. | Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ |
Answer» A. Intrinsic pathway |
75. |
Low doses of heparin prolong: |
A. | Bleeding time |
B. | Activated partial thromboplastin time |
C. | Prothrombin time |
D. | Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ |
Answer» B. Activated partial thromboplastin time |
76. |
Low molecular weight heparins differ from unfractionated heparin in that: |
A. | They selectively inhibit factor Xa |
B. | They do not significantly prolong clotting time |
C. | They are metabolized slowly and have longer duration of action |
D. | All of the above are correct |
Answer» D. All of the above are correct |
77. |
Low molecular weight heparins have the following advantages over unfractionated heparin except: |
A. | Higher efficacy in arterial thrombosis |
B. | Less frequent dosing |
C. | Higher and more consistent subcutaneous bioavailability |
D. | Laboratory monitoring of response not required |
Answer» A. Higher efficacy in arterial thrombosis |
78. |
Choose the drug of which IUPAC name is 1,1-dimethylbiguanide. |
A. | Glipizide |
B. | Metformin |
C. | Pioglitazone |
D. | Tolbutamide |
Answer» B. Metformin |
79. |
Which fibrinolytic agent(s) selectively activate(s) fibrin bound plasminogen rather than circulating plasminogen: |
A. | Urokinase |
B. | Streptokinase |
C. | Alteplase |
D. | Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ |
Answer» C. Alteplase |
80. |
The most important complication of streptokinase therapy is: |
A. | Hypotension |
B. | Bleeding |
C. | Fever |
D. | Anaphylaxis |
Answer» B. Bleeding |
81. |
Aspirin prolongs bleeding time by inhibiting the synthesis of: |
A. | Clotting factors in liver |
B. | Prostacyclin in vascular endothelium |
C. | Cyclic AMP in platelets |
D. | Thromboxane A2 in platelets |
Answer» D. Thromboxane A2 in platelets |
82. |
The following is true of clopidogrel except: |
A. | It is a GPIIb/IIIa receptor antagonist |
B. | It inhibits fibrinogen induced platelet aggregation |
C. | It is indicated for prevention of stroke in patients with transient ischaemic attacks |
D. | It is a prodrug |
Answer» A. It is a GPIIb/IIIa receptor antagonist |
83. |
Choose the most potent and most efficacious LDL cholesterol lowering HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor: |
A. | Lovastatin |
B. | Simvastatin |
C. | Pravastatin |
D. | Atorvastatin |
Answer» D. Atorvastatin |
84. |
Select the most appropriate hypolipidemic drug for a patient with raised LDL-cholesterol level but normal triglyceride level: |
A. | A HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor |
B. | A fibric acid derivative |
C. | Gugulipid |
D. | Nicotinic acid |
Answer» A. A HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor |
85. |
Select the hypolipidemic drug that enhances lipoprotein synthesis, fatty acid oxidation and LDLreceptor expression in liver through paroxisome proliferator-activated receptor α |
A. | Lovastatin |
B. | Atorvastatin |
C. | Bezafibrate |
D. | Nicotinic acid |
Answer» C. Bezafibrate |
86. |
Plasma expanders are used in the following conditions except: (Note: They will increase circulating blood volume and thus preload on heart, which will worsen heart failure.) |
A. | Congestive heart failure |
B. | Extensive burns |
C. | Mutilating injuries |
D. | Endotoxin shock |
Answer» A. Congestive heart failure |
87. |
Trapping of iodide by the following organ/organs is enhanced by thyrotropin: |
A. | Thyroid |
B. | Salivary gland |
C. | Placenta |
D. | All of the above |
Answer» A. Thyroid |
88. |
Triiodothyronine differs from thyroxine in that: |
A. | It is more avidly bound to plasma proteins |
B. | It has a shorter plasma half life |
C. | It is less potent |
D. | It has a longer latency of action |
Answer» B. It has a shorter plasma half life |
89. |
The most reliable guide to adjustment of thyroxine dose in a patient of hypothyroidism is: |
A. | Pulse rate |
B. | Body weight |
C. | Serum thyroxine level |
D. | Serum TSH level |
Answer» D. Serum TSH level |
90. |
Actions of thyroxine include the following except: |
A. | Induction of negative nitrogen balance |
B. | Reduction in plasma cholesterol level |
C. | Fall in plasma free fatty acid level |
D. | Rise in blood sugar level |
Answer» C. Fall in plasma free fatty acid level |
91. |
acts by inhibiting: |
A. | Iodide trapping |
B. | Oxidation of iodide |
C. | Proteolysis of thyroglobulin |
D. | Synthesis of thyroglobulin protein |
Answer» B. Oxidation of iodide |
92. |
Antithyroid drugs exert the following action: |
A. | Inhibit thyroxine synthesis |
B. | Block the action of thyroxine on pituitary |
C. | Block the action of TSH on thyroid |
D. | Block the action of thyroxine on peripheral tissues |
Answer» A. Inhibit thyroxine synthesis |
93. |
Given structure is of |
A. | Propyl thiouracil |
B. | Methimazole |
C. | Carbimazole |
D. | Radioactive iodine |
Answer» B. Methimazole |
94. |
The following thyroid inhibitor interferes with peripheral conversion of thyroxine to triiodothyronine: |
A. | Propyl thiouracil |
B. | Methimazole |
C. | Carbimazole |
D. | Radioactive iodine |
Answer» A. Propyl thiouracil |
95. |
The uses of sodium/potassium iodide include the following except: |
A. | Preoperative preparation of Grave’s disease patient |
B. | Prophylaxis of endemic goiter |
C. | As antiseptic |
D. | As expectorant |
Answer» C. As antiseptic |
96. |
The physical half life of radioactive 131I is: |
A. | 8 hours |
B. | 8 days |
C. | 16 days |
D. | 60 days |
Answer» B. 8 days |
97. |
Propranolol is used in hyperthyroidism: |
A. | As short-term symptomatic therapy till effect of carbimazole develops |
B. | As long-term therapy after subtotal thyroidectomy |
C. | In patients not responding to carbimazole |
D. | To potentiate the effect of radioactive iodine |
Answer» A. As short-term symptomatic therapy till effect of carbimazole develops |
98. |
Insulin release from pancreatic β cells is augmentednby the following except: |
A. | Ketone bodies |
B. | Glucagon |
C. | Vagal stimulation |
D. | Alfa adrenergic agonists |
Answer» D. Alfa adrenergic agonists |
99. |
Action of Insulin does not include the following: |
A. | Facilitation of glucose transport into cells |
B. | Facilitation of glycogen synthesis by liver |
C. | Facilitation of neoglucogenesis by liver |
D. | Inhibition of lipolysis in adipose tissue |
Answer» C. Facilitation of neoglucogenesis by liver |
100. |
The major limitation of the thiazolidinediones in the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus is: |
A. | Frequent hypoglycaemic episodes |
B. | Hyperinsulinemia |
C. | Lactic acidosis |
D. | Low hypoglycaemic efficacy in moderate to severe cases |
Answer» D. Low hypoglycaemic efficacy in moderate to severe cases |
Done Reading?