100+ Pharmaceutical Chemistry - Medicinal Chemistry 4 Solved MCQs

1.

In cardiac glycoside, position of β- unsaturated lactone ring is

A. C – 3
B. C – 14
C. C – 17
D. C – 23
Answer» C. C – 17
2.

Activity of cardiac glycoside depends to a great extent on

A. 23rd carbonyl oxygen
B. C – 3 OH
C. Side chain at C – 14
D. Side chain at C – 17
Answer» A. 23rd carbonyl oxygen
3.

Angiotensin II causes rise in blood pressure by:

A. Direct vasoconstriction
B. Releasing adrenaline from adrenal medulla
C. Increasing central sympathetic tone
D. All of the above
Answer» D. All of the above
4.

Digitalis slows the heart in congestive heart failure by:

A. Increasing vagal tone
B. Decreasing sympathetic overactivity
C. Direct depression of sinoatrial node
D. All of the above
Answer» D. All of the above
5.

Methyldopa is

A. Parasympathomimetic
B. Parasympatholytic
C. Sympathomimetic
D. Sympatholytic
Answer» D. Sympatholytic
6.

Losartan is

A. Renin release blocker
B. ACE inhibitor
C. Angiotension I blocker
D. Angiotension II blocker
Answer» C. Angiotension I blocker
7.

IUPAC name of Dobutamine is

A. 4-(2-{[4-(4-hydroxyphenyl)butan-2-yl]amino}ethyl)benzene-1,2-diol
B. 4-(2-{[4-(4-hydroxyphenyl)butan-2-yl]amino}methyl)benzene-1,2-diol
C. 4-(2-{[4-(4-hydroxyphenyl)propan-2-yl]amino}ethyl)benzene-1,2-diol
D. 4-(2-{[4-(4-hydroxyphenyl) propan -2-yl]amino}methyl)benzene-1,2-diol
Answer» A. 4-(2-{[4-(4-hydroxyphenyl)butan-2-yl]amino}ethyl)benzene-1,2-diol
8.

1-[4-(2-methoxyethyl)phenoxy]-3-[(propan-2-yl)amino]propan-2-ol is IUPAC name of

A. Atenolol
B. Metoprolol
C. Captopril
D. Hydralazine
Answer» B. Metoprolol
9.

Hydralazine is synthesized from

A. 2-formyl benzoic acid and Hydrazine
B. Methacrylic acid
C. 2-azidoethanol
D. o-nitro toluene
Answer» A. 2-formyl benzoic acid and Hydrazine
10.

The principal action common to all class I antiarrhythmic drugs is:

A. Na+ channel blockade
B. K+ channel opening
C. Depression of impulse conduction
D. Prolongation of effective refractory period
Answer» A. Na+ channel blockade
11.

Identify high ceiling diuretic.

A. Chlorthiazide
B. Furosemide
C. Spironolactone
D. Amiloride
Answer» B. Furosemide
12.

_____________ is carboxylic acid moiety containing.

A. Captopril
B. Enalapril
C. Fosinopril
D. Bepridil
Answer» B. Enalapril
13.

Given structure is of

A. Captopril
B. Enalapril
C. Fosinopril
D. Bepridil
Answer» B. Enalapril
14.

_____________ is sulfhydryl moiety containing.

A. Captopril
B. Enalapril
C. Fosinopril
D. Bepridil
Answer» A. Captopril
15.

Given drug is

A. α blocker
B. β blocker
C. K+ channel blocker
D. Ca++ channel blocker
Answer» D. Ca++ channel blocker
16.

The antiarrhythmic drug which decreases both rate of depolarization (phase 0) as well as rate of repolarization (phase 3) of myocardial fibres is:

A. Lignocaine
B. Propranolol
C. Quinidine
D. Verapamil
Answer» C. Quinidine
17.

The following drug is used to reduce the frequency of angina pectoris as well as to terminate an acute attack:

A. Isosorbide dinitrate
B. Pentaerythritol tetranitrate
C. Diltiazem
D. Dipyridamole
Answer» A. Isosorbide dinitrate
18.

Blood flow in the following vascular bed generally decreases under the influence of glyceryl trinitrate:

A. Coronary
B. Cutaneous
C. Renal
D. Cranial
Answer» C. Renal
19.

Phase II in cardiac action potential is

A. Fast depolarization
B. Partial repolarization
C. Plateau
D. Repolarization
Answer» C. Plateau
20.

In HMG-CoA-Reductase Inhibitors, Lactone ring may be substituted at

A. C- 15
B. C- 16
C. C-17
D. C -18
Answer» C. C-17
21.

2-(diethylamino)-N-(2,6-dimethylphenyl) Acetamide is IUPAC name of

A. Flecainide
B. Atenolol
C. Verapamil
D. Lignocaine
Answer» D. Lignocaine
22.

Select the organic nitrate which undergoes minimal first-pass metabolism in the liver:

A. Glyceryl trinitrate
B. Isosorbide dinitrate
C. Isosorbide mononitrate
D. Erythrityl tetranitrate
Answer» C. Isosorbide mononitrate
23.

The primary mechanism of beneficial effect of glyceryl trinitrate in classical angina pectoris is:

A. Increase in total coronary blood flow
B. Redistribution of coronary blood flow
C. Reduction of cardiac preload
D. Reduction of cardiac afterload
Answer» C. Reduction of cardiac preload
24.

Organic nitrates relax vascular smooth muscle by:

A. Increasing intracellular cyclic GMP
B. Increasing intracellular cyclic AMP
C. Decreasing intracellular cyclic AMP
D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct
Answer» A. Increasing intracellular cyclic GMP
25.

Nitrate tolerance is least likely to develop with the use of:

A. Sustained release oral glyceryl trinitrate
B. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate
C. Transdermal glyceryl trinitrate
D. Oral pentaerythritol tetranitrate
Answer» B. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate
26.

Glyceryl trinitrate is administered by the following routes except:

A. Oral
B. Sublingual
C. Intramuscular
D. Intravenous
Answer» C. Intramuscular
27.

Myocardial Na+ channel blockade by lignocaine has the following characteristic:

A. It blocks inactivated Na+ channels more than activated channels
B. It blocks activated Na+ channels more than inactivated channels
C. It delays rate of recovery of Na+ channels
D. It produces more prominent blockade of atrial than ventricular Na+ channels
Answer» A. It blocks inactivated Na+ channels more than activated channels
28.

Hypothyroidism is a possible consequence of prolonged therapy with:

A. Amiodarone
B. Mexiletine
C. Sotalol
D. Procainamide
Answer» A. Amiodarone
29.

The following is true of procainamide except:

A. It generates an active metabolite in the body
B. Its plasma half-life is longer than that of quinidine
C. On long-term use, it can cause systemic lupus erythematosus like illness
D. It is effective in many cases of ventricular extrasystoles, not responding to lignocaine
Answer» B. Its plasma half-life is longer than that of quinidine
30.

The most significant feature of the antiarrhythmic action of is:

A. Suppression of phase-4 depolarization in ventricular ectopic foci
B. Prolongation of action potential duration
C. Prolongation of effective refractory period
D. Depression of membrane responsiveness
Answer» A. Suppression of phase-4 depolarization in ventricular ectopic foci
31.

Quinidine is now used primarily for:

A. Conversion of atrial fibrillation to sinus rhythm
B. Control of ventricular rate in atrial flutter
C. Termination of ventricular tachycardia
D. Prevention of recurrences of atrial fibrillation/ ventricular tachycardia
Answer» D. Prevention of recurrences of atrial fibrillation/ ventricular tachycardia
32.

The following antiarrhythmic drug has the most prominent anticholinergic action:

A. Disopyramide
B. Quinidine
C. Procainamide
D. Lignocaine
Answer» A. Disopyramide
33.

The following is not true about :

A. It blocks myocardial Na+ channels primarily in the open state
B. It has no effect on myocardial K+ channels
C. It produces frequency dependent blockade of myocardial Na+ channels
D. It delays recovery of myocardial Na+ channels
Answer» B. It has no effect on myocardial K+ channels
34.

Beneficial effect/effects of diuretics in CHF patients include the following:

A. Symptomatic relief
B. Regression of pathological changes
C. Prolongation of life expectancy
D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’
Answer» A. Symptomatic relief
35.

Glyceryl trinitrate is used in CHF for:

A. Routine treatment of mild to moderate chronic heart failure
B. Rapid symptom relief in acute left ventricular failure
C. Arresting disease progression
D. Both 'A' and 'B'
Answer» B. Rapid symptom relief in acute left ventricular failure
36.

Vasodilators are used to treat:

A. Acute heart failure attending myocardial infarction
B. Chronic heart failure due to diastolic dysfunction
C. Chronic heart failure due to both systolic as well as diastolic dysfunction
D. All of the above
Answer» D. All of the above
37.

Given drug is administered by the following routes except:

A. Oral
B. Sublingual
C. Intramuscular
D. Intravenous
Answer» C. Intramuscular
38.

Which of the following drugs is most likely to accentuate varient (Prinzmetal) angina?

A. Propranolol
B. Atenolol
C. Verapamil
D. Dipyridamole
Answer» A. Propranolol
39.

The following antianginal drug is most likely to produce tachycardia as a side effect:

A. Amlodipine
B. Nifedipine
C. Diltiazem
D. Verapamil
Answer» B. Nifedipine
40.

The cardiac response to verapamil and nifedipine in human subjects is:

A. Verapamil causes tachycardia while nifedipine causes bradycardia
B. Both cause bradycardia
C. Verapamil causes bradycardia while nifedipine causes tachycardia
D. Both cause tachycardia
Answer» C. Verapamil causes bradycardia while nifedipine causes tachycardia
41.

Propranolol should not be prescribed for a patient of angina pectoris who is already receiving:

A. Nifedipine
B. Felodipine
C. Verapamil
D. Isosorbide mononitrate
Answer» C. Verapamil
42.

Given drug is

A. Nifedipine
B. Felodipine
C. Verapamil
D. Isosorbide mononitrate
Answer» C. Verapamil
43.

The short acting dihydropyridine preparations can aggravate myocardial ischaemia by invoking:

A. Coronary vasospasm
B. Thrombus formation
C. Vagal activation
D. Reflex sympathetic discharge to the heart
Answer» D. Reflex sympathetic discharge to the heart
44.

Which of the following drugs is a potassium channel opener?

A. Nicorandil
B. Hydralazine
C. Glibenclamide
D. Amiloride
Answer» A. Nicorandil
45.

The characteristic feature(s) of dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers is/are:

A. They have minimal negative inotropic action on the heart
B. They have no effect on A-V conduction
C. They do not affect the activation-inactivation kinetics of the calcium channels
D. All of the above
Answer» D. All of the above
46.

The dihydropyridines block the following type of calcium channels:

A. L-type voltage sensitive channels
B. T-type voltage sensitive channels
C. N-type voltage sensitive channels
D. Receptor operated calcium channels
Answer» A. L-type voltage sensitive channels
47.

Select the drug which is a potassium channel opener as well as nitric oxide donor:

A. Diazoxide
B. Sodium nitroprusside
C. Minoxidil
D. Nicorandil
Answer» D. Nicorandil
48.

Though nitrates and calcium channel blockers are both vasodilators, they are used concurrently in angina pectoris, because:

A. They antagonise each other’s side effects
B. Nitrates primarily reduce preload while calcium channel blockers primarily reduce after-load
C. Nitrates increase coronary flow while calcium channel blockers reduce cardiac work
D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
Answer» B. Nitrates primarily reduce preload while calcium channel blockers primarily reduce after-load
49.

The most likely mechanism of antihypertensive action of thiazide diuretics in the long-term is:

A. Reduction of circulating blood volume
B. Reduction in cardiac output
C. Decreased sympathetic tone
D. Reduction in total peripheral vascular resistance and improved compliance of resistance Vessels
Answer» D. Reduction in total peripheral vascular resistance and improved compliance of resistance Vessels
50.

Rapid intravenous injection of clonidine causes rise in BP due to:

A. Stimulation of vasomotor centre
B. Release of noradrenaline from adrenergic nerve endings
C. Agonistic action on vascular α adrenergic receptors
D. Cardiac stimulation
Answer» C. Agonistic action on vascular α adrenergic receptors
51.

Methyldopa lowers BP by:

A. Inhibiting dopa decarboxylase in adrenergic nerve endings
B. Generating α-methyl noradrenaline in brain which reduces sympathetic tone
C. Generating α-methyl noradrenaline which acts as a false transmitter in peripheral adrenergic nerve endings
D. Activating vascular dopamine receptors
Answer» B. Generating α-methyl noradrenaline in brain which reduces sympathetic tone
52.

Methyldopa differs from clonidine in the following respect:

A. It is less likely to cause rebound hypertension on sudden discontinuation
B. It does not reduce plasma renin activity
C. It has a central as well as peripheral site of antihypertensive action
D. It does not produce central side effects
Answer» A. It is less likely to cause rebound hypertension on sudden discontinuation
53.

Used alone the following antihypertensive drug tends to increase cardiac work and can precipitate angina:

A. Clonidine
B. Hydralazine
C. Captopril
D. Prazosin
Answer» B. Hydralazine
54.

is a directly acting vasodilator, but is not used alone as an antihypertensive because:

A. By itself, it is a low efficacy antihypertensive
B. Effective doses cause marked postural hypotension
C. Tolerance to the antihypertensive action develops early due to counterregulatory mechanisms
D. It primarily reduces systolic blood pressure with little effect on diastolic blood pressure
Answer» C. Tolerance to the antihypertensive action develops early due to counterregulatory mechanisms
55.

Long-term hydralazine therapy is likely to cause:

A. Gynaecomastia
B. Thrombocytopenia
C. Haemolytic anaemia
D. Lupus erythematosus
Answer» D. Lupus erythematosus
56.

The following vasodilator(s) act(s) by opening K+ channels in the vascular smooth muscle:

A. Dipyridamole
B. Minoxidil
C. Diazoxide
D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’
Answer» D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’
57.

Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors are contraindicated in:

A. High renin hypertensives
B. Diabetics
C. Congestive heart failure patients
D. Pregnant women
Answer» D. Pregnant women
58.

Secretion of K+ in the late distal tubule and collecting ducts of kidney depends on:

A. Intracellular K+ content
B. Unabsorbed Na+ load presented to the distal segment
C. Aldosterone level
D. All of the above
Answer» D. All of the above
59.

Metformin belongs to which class?

A. Sulphonylureas
B. Meglitinide analogues
C. Biguanides
D. Thiazolidinediones
Answer» C. Biguanides
60.

Diuretics acting on the ascending limb of loop of Henle are the most efficacious in promoting salt and water excretion because:

A. Maximum percentage of salt and water is reabsorbed in this segment
B. Reabsorptive capacity of the segments distal to it is limited
C. This segment is highly permeable to both salt and water
D. This segment is responsible for creating corticomedullary osmotic gradient
Answer» B. Reabsorptive capacity of the segments distal to it is limited
61.

Furosemide acts by inhibiting the following in the renal tubular cell:

A. Na+-K+-2Cl– cotransporter
B. Na+-Cl– symporter
C. Na+-H+ antiporter
D. Na+ K+ ATPase
Answer» A. Na+-K+-2Cl– cotransporter
62.

Thiazide diuretics and furosemide have directionally opposite effect on the net renal excretion of the following substance:

A. Uric acid
B. Calcium
C. Magnesium
D. Bicarbonate
Answer» B. Calcium
63.

The Na+-Cl– symport in the early distal convoluted tubule of the kidney is inhibited by:

A. Thiazides
B. Metolazone
C. Xipamide
D. All of the above
Answer» D. All of the above
64.

Choose the correct statement about thiazide diuretics:

A. They act in the proximal convoluted tubule
B. They are uricosuric
C. They augment corticomedullary osmotic gradient
D. They induce diuresis in acidosis as well as alkalosis
Answer» D. They induce diuresis in acidosis as well as alkalosis
65.

Thiazide diuretics enhance K+ elimination in urine primarily by:

A. Inhibiting proximal tubular K+ reabsorption
B. Inhibiting Na+ K+-2Cl– cotransport in the ascending limb of loop of Henle
C. Increasing the availability of Na+ in the distal tubular fluid to exchange with interstitial K+
D. Potentiating the action of aldosterone
Answer» C. Increasing the availability of Na+ in the distal tubular fluid to exchange with interstitial K+
66.

The primary site of action of thiazide diuretics is:

A. Proximal tubule
B. Ascending limb of loop of Henle
C. Cortical diluting segment
D. Collecting ducts
Answer» C. Cortical diluting segment
67.

The most important reason for the thiazides being only moderately efficacious diuretics is:

A. About 9/10th of glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed proximal to their site of action
B. Compensatory increase in reabsorption at sites not affected by these drugs
C. They decrease glomerular filtration
D. They have relatively flat dose response curve
Answer» A. About 9/10th of glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed proximal to their site of action
68.

Given drug is

A. Hydrochlorthiazide
B. Acetazolamide
C. Furosemide
D. Ethacrinic acid
Answer» C. Furosemide
69.

Long-term thiazide therapy can cause hyperglycaemia by:

A. Reducing insulin release
B. Interfering with glucose utilization in tissues
C. Increasing sympathetic activity
D. Increasing corticosteroid secretion
Answer» A. Reducing insulin release
70.

Which of the following is a potassium retaining diuretic:

A. Triamterene
B. Trimethoprim
C. Tizanidine
D. Trimetazidine
Answer» A. Triamterene
71.

Choose the correct statement about osmotic diuretics:

A. They are large molecular weight substances which form colloidal solution
B. Their primary site of action is collecting ducts in the kidney
C. They increase water excretion without increasing salt excretion
D. They can lower intraocular pressure
Answer» D. They can lower intraocular pressure
72.

The primary mechanism by which antidiuretic hormone reduces urine volume is:

A. Decrease in glomerular filtration rate
B. Decreased renal blood flow
C. Decreased water permeability of descending limb of loop of Henle
D. Increased water permeability of collecting duct cells
Answer» D. Increased water permeability of collecting duct cells
73.

The primary mechanism by which heparin prevents coagulation of blood is:

A. Direct inhibition of prothrombin to thrombin conversion
B. Facilitation of antithrombin III mediated inhibition of factor Xa and thrombin
C. Activation of antithrombin III to inhibit factors IX and XI
D. Inhibition of factors XIIa and XIIIa
Answer» B. Facilitation of antithrombin III mediated inhibition of factor Xa and thrombin
74.

Low concentrations of heparin selectively interfere with the following coagulation pathway(s):

A. Intrinsic pathway
B. Extrinsic pathway
C. Common pathway
D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’
Answer» A. Intrinsic pathway
75.

Low doses of heparin prolong:

A. Bleeding time
B. Activated partial thromboplastin time
C. Prothrombin time
D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’
Answer» B. Activated partial thromboplastin time
76.

Low molecular weight heparins differ from unfractionated heparin in that:

A. They selectively inhibit factor Xa
B. They do not significantly prolong clotting time
C. They are metabolized slowly and have longer duration of action
D. All of the above are correct
Answer» D. All of the above are correct
77.

Low molecular weight heparins have the following advantages over unfractionated heparin except:

A. Higher efficacy in arterial thrombosis
B. Less frequent dosing
C. Higher and more consistent subcutaneous bioavailability
D. Laboratory monitoring of response not required
Answer» A. Higher efficacy in arterial thrombosis
78.

Choose the drug of which IUPAC name is 1,1-dimethylbiguanide.

A. Glipizide
B. Metformin
C. Pioglitazone
D. Tolbutamide
Answer» B. Metformin
79.

Which fibrinolytic agent(s) selectively activate(s) fibrin bound plasminogen rather than circulating plasminogen:

A. Urokinase
B. Streptokinase
C. Alteplase
D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’
Answer» C. Alteplase
80.

The most important complication of streptokinase therapy is:

A. Hypotension
B. Bleeding
C. Fever
D. Anaphylaxis
Answer» B. Bleeding
81.

Aspirin prolongs bleeding time by inhibiting the synthesis of:

A. Clotting factors in liver
B. Prostacyclin in vascular endothelium
C. Cyclic AMP in platelets
D. Thromboxane A2 in platelets
Answer» D. Thromboxane A2 in platelets
82.

The following is true of clopidogrel except:

A. It is a GPIIb/IIIa receptor antagonist
B. It inhibits fibrinogen induced platelet aggregation
C. It is indicated for prevention of stroke in patients with transient ischaemic attacks
D. It is a prodrug
Answer» A. It is a GPIIb/IIIa receptor antagonist
83.

Choose the most potent and most efficacious LDL cholesterol lowering HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor:

A. Lovastatin
B. Simvastatin
C. Pravastatin
D. Atorvastatin
Answer» D. Atorvastatin
84.

Select the most appropriate hypolipidemic drug for a patient with raised LDL-cholesterol level but normal triglyceride level:

A. A HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor
B. A fibric acid derivative
C. Gugulipid
D. Nicotinic acid
Answer» A. A HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor
85.

Select the hypolipidemic drug that enhances lipoprotein synthesis, fatty acid oxidation and LDLreceptor expression in liver through paroxisome proliferator-activated receptor α

A. Lovastatin
B. Atorvastatin
C. Bezafibrate
D. Nicotinic acid
Answer» C. Bezafibrate
86.

Plasma expanders are used in the following conditions except: (Note: They will increase circulating blood volume and thus preload on heart, which will worsen heart failure.)

A. Congestive heart failure
B. Extensive burns
C. Mutilating injuries
D. Endotoxin shock
Answer» A. Congestive heart failure
87.

Trapping of iodide by the following organ/organs is enhanced by thyrotropin:

A. Thyroid
B. Salivary gland
C. Placenta
D. All of the above
Answer» A. Thyroid
88.

Triiodothyronine differs from thyroxine in that:

A. It is more avidly bound to plasma proteins
B. It has a shorter plasma half life
C. It is less potent
D. It has a longer latency of action
Answer» B. It has a shorter plasma half life
89.

The most reliable guide to adjustment of thyroxine dose in a patient of hypothyroidism is:

A. Pulse rate
B. Body weight
C. Serum thyroxine level
D. Serum TSH level
Answer» D. Serum TSH level
90.

Actions of thyroxine include the following except:

A. Induction of negative nitrogen balance
B. Reduction in plasma cholesterol level
C. Fall in plasma free fatty acid level
D. Rise in blood sugar level
Answer» C. Fall in plasma free fatty acid level
91.

acts by inhibiting:

A. Iodide trapping
B. Oxidation of iodide
C. Proteolysis of thyroglobulin
D. Synthesis of thyroglobulin protein
Answer» B. Oxidation of iodide
92.

Antithyroid drugs exert the following action:

A. Inhibit thyroxine synthesis
B. Block the action of thyroxine on pituitary
C. Block the action of TSH on thyroid
D. Block the action of thyroxine on peripheral tissues
Answer» A. Inhibit thyroxine synthesis
93.

Given structure is of

A. Propyl thiouracil
B. Methimazole
C. Carbimazole
D. Radioactive iodine
Answer» B. Methimazole
94.

The following thyroid inhibitor interferes with peripheral conversion of thyroxine to triiodothyronine:

A. Propyl thiouracil
B. Methimazole
C. Carbimazole
D. Radioactive iodine
Answer» A. Propyl thiouracil
95.

The uses of sodium/potassium iodide include the following except:

A. Preoperative preparation of Grave’s disease patient
B. Prophylaxis of endemic goiter
C. As antiseptic
D. As expectorant
Answer» C. As antiseptic
96.

The physical half life of radioactive 131I is:

A. 8 hours
B. 8 days
C. 16 days
D. 60 days
Answer» B. 8 days
97.

Propranolol is used in hyperthyroidism:

A. As short-term symptomatic therapy till effect of carbimazole develops
B. As long-term therapy after subtotal thyroidectomy
C. In patients not responding to carbimazole
D. To potentiate the effect of radioactive iodine
Answer» A. As short-term symptomatic therapy till effect of carbimazole develops
98.

Insulin release from pancreatic β cells is augmentednby the following except:

A. Ketone bodies
B. Glucagon
C. Vagal stimulation
D. Alfa adrenergic agonists
Answer» D. Alfa adrenergic agonists
99.

Action of Insulin does not include the following:

A. Facilitation of glucose transport into cells
B. Facilitation of glycogen synthesis by liver
C. Facilitation of neoglucogenesis by liver
D. Inhibition of lipolysis in adipose tissue
Answer» C. Facilitation of neoglucogenesis by liver
100.

The major limitation of the thiazolidinediones in the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus is:

A. Frequent hypoglycaemic episodes
B. Hyperinsulinemia
C. Lactic acidosis
D. Low hypoglycaemic efficacy in moderate to severe cases
Answer» D. Low hypoglycaemic efficacy in moderate to severe cases
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