McqMate
These multiple-choice questions (MCQs) are designed to enhance your knowledge and understanding in the following areas: Bachelor of Pharmacy (B. Pharma) , Pharmacy .
| 51. |
Methyldopa lowers BP by: |
| A. | Inhibiting dopa decarboxylase in adrenergic nerve endings |
| B. | Generating α-methyl noradrenaline in brain which reduces sympathetic tone |
| C. | Generating α-methyl noradrenaline which acts as a false transmitter in peripheral adrenergic nerve endings |
| D. | Activating vascular dopamine receptors |
| Answer» B. Generating α-methyl noradrenaline in brain which reduces sympathetic tone | |
| 52. |
Methyldopa differs from clonidine in the following respect: |
| A. | It is less likely to cause rebound hypertension on sudden discontinuation |
| B. | It does not reduce plasma renin activity |
| C. | It has a central as well as peripheral site of antihypertensive action |
| D. | It does not produce central side effects |
| Answer» A. It is less likely to cause rebound hypertension on sudden discontinuation | |
| 53. |
Used alone the following antihypertensive drug tends to increase cardiac work and can precipitate angina: |
| A. | Clonidine |
| B. | Hydralazine |
| C. | Captopril |
| D. | Prazosin |
| Answer» B. Hydralazine | |
| 54. |
is a directly acting vasodilator, but is not used alone as an antihypertensive because: |
| A. | By itself, it is a low efficacy antihypertensive |
| B. | Effective doses cause marked postural hypotension |
| C. | Tolerance to the antihypertensive action develops early due to counterregulatory mechanisms |
| D. | It primarily reduces systolic blood pressure with little effect on diastolic blood pressure |
| Answer» C. Tolerance to the antihypertensive action develops early due to counterregulatory mechanisms | |
| 55. |
Long-term hydralazine therapy is likely to cause: |
| A. | Gynaecomastia |
| B. | Thrombocytopenia |
| C. | Haemolytic anaemia |
| D. | Lupus erythematosus |
| Answer» D. Lupus erythematosus | |
| 56. |
The following vasodilator(s) act(s) by opening K+ channels in the vascular smooth muscle: |
| A. | Dipyridamole |
| B. | Minoxidil |
| C. | Diazoxide |
| D. | Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ |
| Answer» D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ | |
| 57. |
Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors are contraindicated in: |
| A. | High renin hypertensives |
| B. | Diabetics |
| C. | Congestive heart failure patients |
| D. | Pregnant women |
| Answer» D. Pregnant women | |
| 58. |
Secretion of K+ in the late distal tubule and collecting ducts of kidney depends on: |
| A. | Intracellular K+ content |
| B. | Unabsorbed Na+ load presented to the distal segment |
| C. | Aldosterone level |
| D. | All of the above |
| Answer» D. All of the above | |
| 59. |
Metformin belongs to which class? |
| A. | Sulphonylureas |
| B. | Meglitinide analogues |
| C. | Biguanides |
| D. | Thiazolidinediones |
| Answer» C. Biguanides | |
| 60. |
Diuretics acting on the ascending limb of loop of Henle are the most efficacious in promoting salt and water excretion because: |
| A. | Maximum percentage of salt and water is reabsorbed in this segment |
| B. | Reabsorptive capacity of the segments distal to it is limited |
| C. | This segment is highly permeable to both salt and water |
| D. | This segment is responsible for creating corticomedullary osmotic gradient |
| Answer» B. Reabsorptive capacity of the segments distal to it is limited | |
| 61. |
Furosemide acts by inhibiting the following in the renal tubular cell: |
| A. | Na+-K+-2Cl– cotransporter |
| B. | Na+-Cl– symporter |
| C. | Na+-H+ antiporter |
| D. | Na+ K+ ATPase |
| Answer» A. Na+-K+-2Cl– cotransporter | |
| 62. |
Thiazide diuretics and furosemide have directionally opposite effect on the net renal excretion of the following substance: |
| A. | Uric acid |
| B. | Calcium |
| C. | Magnesium |
| D. | Bicarbonate |
| Answer» B. Calcium | |
| 63. |
The Na+-Cl– symport in the early distal convoluted tubule of the kidney is inhibited by: |
| A. | Thiazides |
| B. | Metolazone |
| C. | Xipamide |
| D. | All of the above |
| Answer» D. All of the above | |
| 64. |
Choose the correct statement about thiazide diuretics: |
| A. | They act in the proximal convoluted tubule |
| B. | They are uricosuric |
| C. | They augment corticomedullary osmotic gradient |
| D. | They induce diuresis in acidosis as well as alkalosis |
| Answer» D. They induce diuresis in acidosis as well as alkalosis | |
| 65. |
Thiazide diuretics enhance K+ elimination in urine primarily by: |
| A. | Inhibiting proximal tubular K+ reabsorption |
| B. | Inhibiting Na+ K+-2Cl– cotransport in the ascending limb of loop of Henle |
| C. | Increasing the availability of Na+ in the distal tubular fluid to exchange with interstitial K+ |
| D. | Potentiating the action of aldosterone |
| Answer» C. Increasing the availability of Na+ in the distal tubular fluid to exchange with interstitial K+ | |
| 66. |
The primary site of action of thiazide diuretics is: |
| A. | Proximal tubule |
| B. | Ascending limb of loop of Henle |
| C. | Cortical diluting segment |
| D. | Collecting ducts |
| Answer» C. Cortical diluting segment | |
| 67. |
The most important reason for the thiazides being only moderately efficacious diuretics is: |
| A. | About 9/10th of glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed proximal to their site of action |
| B. | Compensatory increase in reabsorption at sites not affected by these drugs |
| C. | They decrease glomerular filtration |
| D. | They have relatively flat dose response curve |
| Answer» A. About 9/10th of glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed proximal to their site of action | |
| 68. |
Given drug is |
| A. | Hydrochlorthiazide |
| B. | Acetazolamide |
| C. | Furosemide |
| D. | Ethacrinic acid |
| Answer» C. Furosemide | |
| 69. |
Long-term thiazide therapy can cause hyperglycaemia by: |
| A. | Reducing insulin release |
| B. | Interfering with glucose utilization in tissues |
| C. | Increasing sympathetic activity |
| D. | Increasing corticosteroid secretion |
| Answer» A. Reducing insulin release | |
| 70. |
Which of the following is a potassium retaining diuretic: |
| A. | Triamterene |
| B. | Trimethoprim |
| C. | Tizanidine |
| D. | Trimetazidine |
| Answer» A. Triamterene | |
| 71. |
Choose the correct statement about osmotic diuretics: |
| A. | They are large molecular weight substances which form colloidal solution |
| B. | Their primary site of action is collecting ducts in the kidney |
| C. | They increase water excretion without increasing salt excretion |
| D. | They can lower intraocular pressure |
| Answer» D. They can lower intraocular pressure | |
| 72. |
The primary mechanism by which antidiuretic hormone reduces urine volume is: |
| A. | Decrease in glomerular filtration rate |
| B. | Decreased renal blood flow |
| C. | Decreased water permeability of descending limb of loop of Henle |
| D. | Increased water permeability of collecting duct cells |
| Answer» D. Increased water permeability of collecting duct cells | |
| 73. |
The primary mechanism by which heparin prevents coagulation of blood is: |
| A. | Direct inhibition of prothrombin to thrombin conversion |
| B. | Facilitation of antithrombin III mediated inhibition of factor Xa and thrombin |
| C. | Activation of antithrombin III to inhibit factors IX and XI |
| D. | Inhibition of factors XIIa and XIIIa |
| Answer» B. Facilitation of antithrombin III mediated inhibition of factor Xa and thrombin | |
| 74. |
Low concentrations of heparin selectively interfere with the following coagulation pathway(s): |
| A. | Intrinsic pathway |
| B. | Extrinsic pathway |
| C. | Common pathway |
| D. | Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ |
| Answer» A. Intrinsic pathway | |
| 75. |
Low doses of heparin prolong: |
| A. | Bleeding time |
| B. | Activated partial thromboplastin time |
| C. | Prothrombin time |
| D. | Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ |
| Answer» B. Activated partial thromboplastin time | |
| 76. |
Low molecular weight heparins differ from unfractionated heparin in that: |
| A. | They selectively inhibit factor Xa |
| B. | They do not significantly prolong clotting time |
| C. | They are metabolized slowly and have longer duration of action |
| D. | All of the above are correct |
| Answer» D. All of the above are correct | |
| 77. |
Low molecular weight heparins have the following advantages over unfractionated heparin except: |
| A. | Higher efficacy in arterial thrombosis |
| B. | Less frequent dosing |
| C. | Higher and more consistent subcutaneous bioavailability |
| D. | Laboratory monitoring of response not required |
| Answer» A. Higher efficacy in arterial thrombosis | |
| 78. |
Choose the drug of which IUPAC name is 1,1-dimethylbiguanide. |
| A. | Glipizide |
| B. | Metformin |
| C. | Pioglitazone |
| D. | Tolbutamide |
| Answer» B. Metformin | |
| 79. |
Which fibrinolytic agent(s) selectively activate(s) fibrin bound plasminogen rather than circulating plasminogen: |
| A. | Urokinase |
| B. | Streptokinase |
| C. | Alteplase |
| D. | Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ |
| Answer» C. Alteplase | |
| 80. |
The most important complication of streptokinase therapy is: |
| A. | Hypotension |
| B. | Bleeding |
| C. | Fever |
| D. | Anaphylaxis |
| Answer» B. Bleeding | |
| 81. |
Aspirin prolongs bleeding time by inhibiting the synthesis of: |
| A. | Clotting factors in liver |
| B. | Prostacyclin in vascular endothelium |
| C. | Cyclic AMP in platelets |
| D. | Thromboxane A2 in platelets |
| Answer» D. Thromboxane A2 in platelets | |
| 82. |
The following is true of clopidogrel except: |
| A. | It is a GPIIb/IIIa receptor antagonist |
| B. | It inhibits fibrinogen induced platelet aggregation |
| C. | It is indicated for prevention of stroke in patients with transient ischaemic attacks |
| D. | It is a prodrug |
| Answer» A. It is a GPIIb/IIIa receptor antagonist | |
| 83. |
Choose the most potent and most efficacious LDL cholesterol lowering HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor: |
| A. | Lovastatin |
| B. | Simvastatin |
| C. | Pravastatin |
| D. | Atorvastatin |
| Answer» D. Atorvastatin | |
| 84. |
Select the most appropriate hypolipidemic drug for a patient with raised LDL-cholesterol level but normal triglyceride level: |
| A. | A HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor |
| B. | A fibric acid derivative |
| C. | Gugulipid |
| D. | Nicotinic acid |
| Answer» A. A HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor | |
| 85. |
Select the hypolipidemic drug that enhances lipoprotein synthesis, fatty acid oxidation and LDLreceptor expression in liver through paroxisome proliferator-activated receptor α |
| A. | Lovastatin |
| B. | Atorvastatin |
| C. | Bezafibrate |
| D. | Nicotinic acid |
| Answer» C. Bezafibrate | |
| 86. |
Plasma expanders are used in the following conditions except: (Note: They will increase circulating blood volume and thus preload on heart, which will worsen heart failure.) |
| A. | Congestive heart failure |
| B. | Extensive burns |
| C. | Mutilating injuries |
| D. | Endotoxin shock |
| Answer» A. Congestive heart failure | |
| 87. |
Trapping of iodide by the following organ/organs is enhanced by thyrotropin: |
| A. | Thyroid |
| B. | Salivary gland |
| C. | Placenta |
| D. | All of the above |
| Answer» A. Thyroid | |
| 88. |
Triiodothyronine differs from thyroxine in that: |
| A. | It is more avidly bound to plasma proteins |
| B. | It has a shorter plasma half life |
| C. | It is less potent |
| D. | It has a longer latency of action |
| Answer» B. It has a shorter plasma half life | |
| 89. |
The most reliable guide to adjustment of thyroxine dose in a patient of hypothyroidism is: |
| A. | Pulse rate |
| B. | Body weight |
| C. | Serum thyroxine level |
| D. | Serum TSH level |
| Answer» D. Serum TSH level | |
| 90. |
Actions of thyroxine include the following except: |
| A. | Induction of negative nitrogen balance |
| B. | Reduction in plasma cholesterol level |
| C. | Fall in plasma free fatty acid level |
| D. | Rise in blood sugar level |
| Answer» C. Fall in plasma free fatty acid level | |
| 91. |
acts by inhibiting: |
| A. | Iodide trapping |
| B. | Oxidation of iodide |
| C. | Proteolysis of thyroglobulin |
| D. | Synthesis of thyroglobulin protein |
| Answer» B. Oxidation of iodide | |
| 92. |
Antithyroid drugs exert the following action: |
| A. | Inhibit thyroxine synthesis |
| B. | Block the action of thyroxine on pituitary |
| C. | Block the action of TSH on thyroid |
| D. | Block the action of thyroxine on peripheral tissues |
| Answer» A. Inhibit thyroxine synthesis | |
| 93. |
Given structure is of |
| A. | Propyl thiouracil |
| B. | Methimazole |
| C. | Carbimazole |
| D. | Radioactive iodine |
| Answer» B. Methimazole | |
| 94. |
The following thyroid inhibitor interferes with peripheral conversion of thyroxine to triiodothyronine: |
| A. | Propyl thiouracil |
| B. | Methimazole |
| C. | Carbimazole |
| D. | Radioactive iodine |
| Answer» A. Propyl thiouracil | |
| 95. |
The uses of sodium/potassium iodide include the following except: |
| A. | Preoperative preparation of Grave’s disease patient |
| B. | Prophylaxis of endemic goiter |
| C. | As antiseptic |
| D. | As expectorant |
| Answer» C. As antiseptic | |
| 96. |
The physical half life of radioactive 131I is: |
| A. | 8 hours |
| B. | 8 days |
| C. | 16 days |
| D. | 60 days |
| Answer» B. 8 days | |
| 97. |
Propranolol is used in hyperthyroidism: |
| A. | As short-term symptomatic therapy till effect of carbimazole develops |
| B. | As long-term therapy after subtotal thyroidectomy |
| C. | In patients not responding to carbimazole |
| D. | To potentiate the effect of radioactive iodine |
| Answer» A. As short-term symptomatic therapy till effect of carbimazole develops | |
| 98. |
Insulin release from pancreatic β cells is augmentednby the following except: |
| A. | Ketone bodies |
| B. | Glucagon |
| C. | Vagal stimulation |
| D. | Alfa adrenergic agonists |
| Answer» D. Alfa adrenergic agonists | |
| 99. |
Action of Insulin does not include the following: |
| A. | Facilitation of glucose transport into cells |
| B. | Facilitation of glycogen synthesis by liver |
| C. | Facilitation of neoglucogenesis by liver |
| D. | Inhibition of lipolysis in adipose tissue |
| Answer» C. Facilitation of neoglucogenesis by liver | |
| 100. |
The major limitation of the thiazolidinediones in the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus is: |
| A. | Frequent hypoglycaemic episodes |
| B. | Hyperinsulinemia |
| C. | Lactic acidosis |
| D. | Low hypoglycaemic efficacy in moderate to severe cases |
| Answer» D. Low hypoglycaemic efficacy in moderate to severe cases | |
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