90+ Indian Constitutional Law 2 Solved MCQs

1.

Keshavananda Bharati case is associated with

A. fundamental rights
B. directive principles of state policy
C. state right
D. armed rebellion
Answer» A. fundamental rights
2.

The members of the Council of states in India are elected for a period of

A. 4 years
B. 5 years
C. 6 years
D. life term
Answer» C. 6 years
3.

The President can’t------- Lok Sabha

A. dissolve
B. adjourn
C. prorogue
D. summon
Answer» B. adjourn
4.

The duration of an ordinance issued by the President of India is

A. 6weeks
B. 1 year
C. 6 months
D. 6 weeks from the date of assembly of the parliament
Answer» D. 6 weeks from the date of assembly of the parliament
5.

Who promulgates ordinance in states

A. governor
B. chief minister
C. president
D. chief justice
Answer» A. governor
6.

Who presides over the joint sitting of the Parliament?

A. president
B. vice president
C. speaker
D. chief justice
Answer» C. speaker
7.

The amending power of the Constitution of India is described in Article

A. 352
B. 368
C. 360
D. 395
Answer» B. 368
8.

The ex-officio chairman of the Council of States is

A. speaker
B. vice president
C. deputy speaker
D. deputy chairman
Answer» B. vice president
9.

In India the Council of State is responsible to

A. the people
B. the state
C. local government
D. none of these
Answer» B. the state
10.

The number of the Anglo Indians nominated to the House of People is

A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
Answer» C. 2
11.

The number of nominated members to the Council of States is

A. 18
B. 12
C. 20
D. 16
Answer» B. 12
12.

How many methods are there to amend the Constitution of India?

A. 5
B. 4
C. 3
D. 2
Answer» C. 3
13.

Article 352 of the Indian Constitution deal with

A. centre-state relations
B. supreme court
C. state emergency
D. national emergency
Answer» D. national emergency
14.

Article 32 stands suspended during an emergency under Article

A. 352
B. 356
C. 360
D. 362
Answer» A. 352
15.

Which article of the constitution of India empower the President to take over the administration of a state on the basis of failure of constitutional machinery

A. 365
B. 352
C. 356
D. 360
Answer» C. 356
16.

In India the power of ‘amnesty’ has been given to the

A. president
B. prime minister
C. chief of the army
D. parliament
Answer» A. president
17.

The President’s rule in a state can be continued at a stretch for a maximum period of

A. 4years
B. 2years
C. 3 years
D. one year
Answer» D. one year
18.

The Council of State in India has how many elected members

A. 250
B. 238
C. 245
D. 230
Answer» B. 238
19.

42ndamendment Act was adopted by the Parliament in

A. 1967
B. 1968
C. 1976
D. 1977
Answer» C. 1976
20.

The supreme commander of the armed forces in India is

A. president
B. prime minister
C. defence minister
D. none of these
Answer» A. president
21.

What is the maximum gap permissible between two sessions of the Parliament?

A. 3 months
B. 4 months
C. 6 months
D. 12 months
Answer» C. 6 months
22.

: The power of president to grant pardon is an independent power distinct from judicial
power. It is not judiciable on its merit. Only the area and scope of president’s power under
article 72 can be examined by the court” was observed by the Supreme Court in-

A. state of punjab v. joginder singh
B. kehar singh v. union of india
C. maru ram v. uion of india
D. all of the above
Answer» D. all of the above
23.

The President of India is elected by

A. elected members of both houses of parliament
B. members of both houses of parliament
C. elected members of both houses of parliament and state legislative assemblies
D. elected members of both houses of parliament and both houses of the state legislatures
Answer» C. elected members of both houses of parliament and state legislative assemblies
24.

Council of States in India can delay a money bill for

A. indefinite period
B. 6 months
C. 1 month
D. 14 days
Answer» D. 14 days
25.

Public Accounts Committee has members from

A. house of the people
B. council of states only
C. state legislatures
D. both houses of parliament
Answer» D. both houses of parliament
26.

The members of the Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to

A. judiciary
B. house of the people
C. council of states
D. the president
Answer» B. house of the people
27.

The term ‘federal’ is derived from the Latin word ‘foedus’ which means

A. separation
B. distribution
C. covenant
D. none of these
Answer» C. covenant
28.

Which commission has examined the centre- state relations?

A. sarkaria commission
B. sri krishna commission
C. rajamannar commission
D. kher commission
Answer» A. sarkaria commission
29.

In the Indian federal system, residuary powers rest with the

A. local government
B. state
C. judiciary
D. centre
Answer» D. centre
30.

Which Article of the Constitution of India provides for co-operation between states?

A. article 32
B. article 360
C. article 14
D. article 263
Answer» D. article 263
31.

Madan Mohan Punchi commission was appointed to study

A. centre-state relations
B. state reorganization
C. panchayat raj
D. delimitation of constituencies
Answer» A. centre-state relations
32.

India is a Republic in the sense that

A. it has an elected head of the state
B. it has an elected head of the government
C. it has a bi-cameral legislature
D. it has sovereign power
Answer» A. it has an elected head of the state
33.

The Indian federal system can be transformed into a unitary system under

A. article 368
B. article 356
C. article 360
D. article 352
Answer» D. article 352
34.

President’s powers in relation to Emergency are provided in

A. article 352
B. article 385
C. article 340
D. none of these
Answer» A. article 352
35.

The authority to alter the boundaries of state in India rests with

A. state government
B. parliament
C. prime minister
D. president
Answer» B. parliament
36.

The High Courts in India do not possess

A. original jurisdiction
B. appellate jurisdiction
C. advisory jurisdiction
D. revisory jurisdiction
Answer» C. advisory jurisdiction
37.

Provisions under 9th schedule

A. can be challenged in a court of law
B. can’t be challenged in a court of law
C. can seek opinion in a court of law
D. none of these
Answer» B. can’t be challenged in a court of law
38.

Under which article of the Constitution the Supreme Court of India has been established

A. 24
B. 124
C. 224
D. 231
Answer» B. 124
39.

The High Court has the power to issue writ under article

A. 32
B. 220
C. 226
D. 344
Answer» C. 226
40.

The power of the Supreme Court can be enlarged by

A. cabinet
B. parliament
C. president
D. chief justice
Answer» B. parliament
41.

Judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from offices by

A. executive order
B. impeachment
C. judicial order
D. bureaucracy
Answer» B. impeachment
42.

Which article of the Constitution of India deals with the Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?

A. article 74
B. article 142
C. article 143
D. article 147
Answer» C. article 143
43.

Subjects in the -------- schedule is beyond the scope of Judicial Review

A. 8th
B. 9th
C. 12th
D. 3rd
Answer» B. 9th
44.

The Union Legislature in India is empowered

A. not to amend the basic structure of the constitution
B. to amend the basic structure of the constitution
C. to abrogate the basic structure
D. none of these
Answer» A. not to amend the basic structure of the constitution
45.

Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is contained in

A. article 131
B. article 129
C. article 132
D. article 136
Answer» A. article 131
46.

: The power of the President to consult the Supreme Court is under Article

A. 132
B. 143
C. 136
D. 131
Answer» B. 143
47.

The Question as to the constitution amending power of the parliament came before Supreme Court for the first time in

A. shankari prasad v. union of india (1951)
B. golakh nath v. state of punjab (1967)
C. indira nehru gandhi v. raj narayan (1975)
D. none of these
Answer» A. shankari prasad v. union of india (1951)
48.

The term of president expires

A. till the life time
B. four years from the date of his entering to the office
C. five years from the date of declaring the results
D. five years from the date of entering to the office
Answer» D. five years from the date of entering to the office
49.

Which are the grounds for proclamation of Emergency?

A. war
B. external aggression
C. armed rebellion
D. all the above
Answer» D. all the above
50.

Financial Emergency is dealt with under Article

A. 352
B. 360
C. 356
D. none of these
Answer» B. 360
51.

Ground(s) for the declaration of financial emergency include-

A. threat to the financial stability of india
B. threat to the credit of india
C. threat to the financial stability / credit of any part of the territory of india
D. all the above
Answer» D. all the above
52.

Article 80 deals with

A. composition of lok sebha
B. composition of rajya sebha
C. composition of state legislative assembly
D. composition of state legislative council
Answer» B. composition of rajya sebha
53.

Executive power of the State is vested with

A. people of the state
B. chief minister of the state
C. governor of the state
D. state legislature
Answer» C. governor of the state
54.

The Governor holds office

A. for a period of five years
B. for a period of four years
C. till the pleasure of the president
D. during the pleasure of the president, and if not recalled earlier, for the period of five years,
Answer» D. during the pleasure of the president, and if not recalled earlier, for the period of five years,
55.

Once the proclamation of Emergency is made, the right of the citizen to move Supreme Court for the enforcement of his fundamental rights is suspended by

A. the prime minister of india
B. the president of india
C. the chief justice of the supreme court
D. the speaker
Answer» B. the president of india
56.

The powers of the President are

A. beyond the constitution
B. in accordance with the constitution
C. in accordance with the parliament only
D. supra-constitutional
Answer» B. in accordance with the constitution
57.

After a Bill has been passed by the Parliament and sent to the President

A. he can refuse to sign it
B. he has to sign it
C. he can change certain clauses of the bill
D. he can send it back for consideration
Answer» D. he can send it back for consideration
58.

The Salary & allowances of the Governor are charged to

A. consolidated fund of the state
B. consolidated fund of india
C. contingency fund of india
D. from (a) & (b) in equal proportion
Answer» A. consolidated fund of the state
59.

Members of Lok Sebha are elected by way of

A. people’s representation
B. by the state legislature
C. nominations
D. through electoral colleges
Answer» A. people’s representation
60.

Representation of Lok Sebha is based on

A. area of the state
B. population
C. community
D. literacy rate
Answer» B. population
61.

A Member of Parliament can claim immunity

A. both from civil as well as criminal cases
B. from civil cases only
C. from criminal cases only
D. cannot claim immunity either from civil or criminal cases
Answer» B. from civil cases only
62.

Prorogation of the House means

A. the house has been brought into session
B. the house itself stands terminated
C. the session of the house has been terminated
D. none of these
Answer» C. the session of the house has been terminated
63.

The constitution of India provides special procedure for

A. money bill
B. finance bill
C. both money bill & finance bill
D. none of the above
Answer» A. money bill
64.

The Attorney General of India holds office during the pleasure of

A. the chief justice of india
B. the prime minister
C. the president of india
D. the parliament
Answer» C. the president of india
65.

In the event of the resignation or death of Prime Minister

A. the ministry is dissolved
B. fresh elections must be held
C. the cabinet may choose another leader
D. president’s decision
Answer» A. the ministry is dissolved
66.

Rajya Sebha has the exclusive authority to

A. impeach the vice-president
B. intimate impeachment proceedings against the chief election commissioner
C. recommend the creation of new all india services
D. all off the above
Answer» C. recommend the creation of new all india services
67.

A Law made by Parliament having extra-territorial operation shall

A. not be deemed invalid
B. be deemed invalid
C. be deemed ultra-vires
D. be deemed unconstitutional
Answer» A. not be deemed invalid
68.

Articles 155-159 of the Indian constitution deal with

A. inter-state commerce commission
B. election commission
C. legislative councils
D. president’s power to appoint and dismiss governor
Answer» D. president’s power to appoint and dismiss governor
69.

The Speaker of Lok Sebha has to address his letter of resignation to the

A. prime minister
B. deputy speaker of lok sebha
C. president of india
D. vice-president of india
Answer» B. deputy speaker of lok sebha
70.

To adjudicate on any dispute relating to any inter-state riversor inter-state valley

A. only the supreme court is empowered under article 131
B. high court of concerned state enjoys concurrent jurisdiction
C. president of india only has the power to decide
D. the parliament is empowered to establish tribunal and to that extent the jurisdiction of the
Answer» D. the parliament is empowered to establish tribunal and to that extent the jurisdiction of the
71.

The Supreme Court of India is

A. a court of record and has power to punish for its contempt
B. the only highest court of appeal
C. like house of lords on its judicial side
D. in all respect like the supreme court of the usa
Answer» A. a court of record and has power to punish for its contempt
72.

The judges of the Supreme Court are appointed

A. by the president
B. by the president in consultation with the chief justice of india
C. by the president in consultation with the prime minister
D. by the president in consultation with the chief justice of india and out of the judges of
Answer» D. by the president in consultation with the chief justice of india and out of the judges of
73.

The minimum number of judges to sit on a Constitution Bench or on a Bench which gives its advisory opinion on the reference by the President must be

A. one half of the total strength of the supreme court
B. seven
C. three
D. one third of the total strength of the court
Answer» B. seven
74.

Supreme Court has original jurisdiction

A. in all inter-state or union-state disputes
B. in all disputes relating to international relations
C. in disputes to which india and foreign states are parties
D. in conflict between two foreign states
Answer» A. in all inter-state or union-state disputes
75.

It is inappropriate for petitioner in Public Interest Litigation to

A. write to any single judge of the supreme court
B. act pro bono publico
C. withdraw proceedings as of right and further too claim that they shall not be continued
D. ask for the direction of a new legislation
Answer» C. withdraw proceedings as of right and further too claim that they shall not be continued
76.

A retired judge of High Court cannot

A. practice in the supreme court
B. practice in any high court in india
C. practice in the high court from which he has retired
D. none of the above
Answer» C. practice in the high court from which he has retired
77.

The jurisdiction of Supreme Court of India may be enlarged by

A. parliament by law
B. parliament by resolution
C. the president
D. the president in consultation with the chief justice of india
Answer» A. parliament by law
78.

Which Article lays down thatthe laws declared by the Supreme Court would be binding on the courts in India?

A. article 131
B. article 141
C. article 143
D. article 142
Answer» B. article 141
79.

Supreme Court struck down a part of the Preventive Detention Act in the

A. gopalan case
B. golakhnath case
C. ramesh thappar case
D. kochunni case
Answer» A. gopalan case
80.

The Structure of Indian Constitution is

A. federal in form and unitary in spirit
B. unitary
C. unitary in form and federal in spirit
D. purely federal
Answer» A. federal in form and unitary in spirit
81.

The most important feature of a federation is

A. separation of powers
B. division of powers
C. judicial review
D. union of states
Answer» D. union of states
82.

Which Articles of the Indian Constitution discuss the financial relations between the Centre and the Sates?

A. articles 268-281
B. articles 278-291
C. articles 289-295
D. articles 168-171
Answer» A. articles 268-281
83.

The Concurrent List contains

A. 47 subjects
B. 68 subjects
C. 42 subjects
D. 38 subjects
Answer» A. 47 subjects
84.

The Union of India has power

A. to issue administrative directions to the states
B. to delegate administrative functions to the states
C. both (a) and (b)
D. none of the above
Answer» C. both (a) and (b)
85.

Emergency can be proclaimed

A. only in whole of the country
B. only in that part of the country where aggression has taken place
C. in any part of the country
D. in the entire country or any part of the territory of india
Answer» D. in the entire country or any part of the territory of india
86.

The President can issue the proclamation of Emergency

A. on the advice of prime minister
B. on the advice of council of ministers
C. in his own decisions
D. when the decision of union cabinet for the issuance of such proclamation has been
Answer» D. when the decision of union cabinet for the issuance of such proclamation has been
87.

The words ‘Socialism’ and ‘Secularism’ were inserted by the

A. 15th amendment
B. 39th amendment
C. 42nd amendment
D. 44th amendment
Answer» C. 42nd amendment
88.

In which case Supreme Court held that an Amendment of the Constitution under Article 368 was ‘law within the meaning of Article 13’?

A. golakhnath v. state of punjab
B. sajjan singh v. state of rajasthan
C. sankari prasad v. union of india
D. kesavananda bharati v. state of kerala
Answer» A. golakhnath v. state of punjab
89.

Which of the following case was the reason behind the Parliament passing the 24th Amendment of Constitution Act, 1971?

A. sajjan singh v. state of rajasthan
B. golakhnath v. state of punjab
C. kesavananda bharati v. state of kerala
D. minerva mills v. union of india
Answer» B. golakhnath v. state of punjab
90.

First constitutional amendment was challenged in the case of

A. sankari prasad v. union of india
B. sajjan singh v. state of rajasthan
C. a. k. gopalan v. state of madras
D. golakhnath v. state of punjab
Answer» A. sankari prasad v. union of india
91.

A Bill to amend the Constitution may be initiated in

A. rajya sebha
B. lok sebha
C. either in rajya sebha or lok sebha
D. none of the above
Answer» C. either in rajya sebha or lok sebha
92.

In case of conflict between fundamental rights of citizen and privileges of parliament,

A. parliamentary privilege will have supremacy
B. fundamental rights will prevail
C. some of the fundamental rights are sacrosanct over which privileges will not prevail
D. generally parliamentary privileges will prevail. but, parliament while acting against the
Answer» D. generally parliamentary privileges will prevail. but, parliament while acting against the
93.

Which of the following is incorrect

A. newspapers can publish parliamentary proceedings
B. newspapers can publish any part of the proceedings with the permission of the speaker.
C. newspapers have also the freedom to publish expunged portions of the speech of an mp
D. parliament has freedom to publish its proceedings
Answer» C. newspapers have also the freedom to publish expunged portions of the speech of an mp
94.

Vidhan Sebha has a term of

A. five years
B. four years
C. five years unless dissolved earlier
D. two years unless dissolved earlier
Answer» C. five years unless dissolved earlier
95.

Which of the following is continuing body?

A. lok sebha
B. legislative assembly
C. legislative council
D. none of the above
Answer» C. legislative council
96.

Who is considered as the Custodian of Lok Sebha?

A. prime minister
B. leader of opposition
C. chief whip of the ruling party
D. the speaker
Answer» D. the speaker
97.

Decisions of the disqualification of member of Lok Sebha are taken by

A. speaker
B. prime minister
C. minister for parliamentary affairs
D. the parliamentary secretary
Answer» A. speaker
98.

Provision to Financial Bill is provided under

A. article 110
B. article 115
C. article 117
D. article 119
Answer» C. article 117
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