165
65.3k
Chapter:

100+ Amendment of the Constitution Solved MCQs

in Indian Polity and Constitution

These multiple-choice questions (MCQs) are designed to enhance your knowledge and understanding in the following areas: General Knowledge (GK) , Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) , Indian Administrative Service (IAS) .

Chapters

Take a Test
Chapter: Amendment of the Constitution
1.

Which of the following provisions of the Constitution can be amended only if (a) they are passed by a majority of total - membership of each House of Parliament and not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting in each House of Parliament, and (b) are ratified by the legislatures of one-half of the States? [IAS 1995]
1. Method of election of President.
2. Provisions regarding the High Court.
3. Abolition of Legislative Council in any State.
4. Qualifications for Indian citizenship
5. Representation of States in Parliament.

A. I, III, IV and V
B. II, III and V
C. I, II and V
D. I, II, III, IV and V
Answer» C. I, II and V
discuss
2.

Which of the following Amendments would need State ratification? 1. Provisions affecting President's election. 2. Provisions affecting the Union Judiciary. 3. Amendment procedure. 4. Reservation of seats for SC/ST in Parliament.

A. I, II and IV
B. III and IV
C. I and IV
D. I, II, III and IV
Answer» D. I, II, III and IV
discuss
3.

Regarding Constitutional Amendments
1. the Provision of joint sitting is not available.
2. they become operative from the date both Houses have passed the Bills.
3. the President's assent to a Constitutional Amendment is obligatory.
4. Parliament may amend any part of the Constitution according to the procedure laid down in Article 368.

A. I and III
B. I, II and III
C. I, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV
Answer» C. I, III and IV
discuss
4.

The Constitution of India does not mention the post of:

A. the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
B. the Deputy Prime Minister
C. the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
D. the Deputy Speaker of the State Legislative Assemblies
Answer» B. the Deputy Prime Minister
discuss
5.

Which Amendment of the Constitution gave priority to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights?

A. 24th Amendment
B. 39th Amendment
C. 42nd Amendment
D. 40th Amendment
Answer» C. 42nd Amendment
discuss
6.

A major portion of the Constitution:

A. can be amended by simple majority
B. can be amended by two-thirds majority
C. can be amended only with State ratification
D. cannot be amended
Answer» B. can be amended by two-thirds majority
discuss
7.

If India decides to have a Presidential form of government, the first and foremost Amendment has to be made affecting the:

A. system of judiciary
B. composition of Parliament
C. Executive-Legislature relationship
D. provisions pertaining to Fundamental Rights
Answer» C. Executive-Legislature relationship
discuss
8.

Which Amendment restored the power of judicial review to the Supreme Court and High Courts after it was curtailed by the 42nd Amendment?

A. 42nd
B. 43rd
C. 44th
D. 56th
Answer» B. 43rd
discuss
9.

Which one of the following statements is/are correct?
I. The committee on the status of women in India (NSW/) recommended the setting up of a National Commission for Women.
II. The first Chairperson of the National Commission for Women was Mrs. Jayanti Patnaik.
III. The main task of the Commission is to study and monitor all matters relating to the constitutional and legal safeguards provided for women.
Select the correct answer using the code given below [CDS 2009]

A. I, II and III
B. II only
C. I and II
D. I and III
Answer» A. I, II and III
discuss
10.

Which of the following cannot be altered by the Parliament by ordinary legislative procedure ?

A. Acquistion and termination of citizenship
B. Privileges of the Parliament
C. Composition of State Legislative Councils
D. Representation of States in the Parliament
Answer» D. Representation of States in the Parliament
discuss
11.

Which of the following would be construed as a reasonable restriction of the 'right to freedom'? [CDS 2009]

A. When the State disallows a candidate from securing votes in the name of religion
B. When the State disallows citizens from forming a club out of State funds that denies access to women
C. When the Government of Nagaland disallows temporary residents to buy immovable property in Nagaland.
D. AII of the above
Answer» C. When the Government of Nagaland disallows temporary residents to buy immovable property in Nagaland.
discuss
12.

Which of the following Constitutional Amendments banned the floor crossing in Parliament? [UGC 1989]

A. 42nd
B. 44th
C. 52nd
D. 53rd
Answer» C. 52nd
discuss
13.

The provision of amending the Constitutional Provision is given in :

A. Part XIX Article 356
B. Part XX Article 356
C. Part XX Article 368
D. Part XIX Article 368
Answer» C. Part XX Article 368
discuss
14.

A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by both Houses of Parliament

A. does not need the assent of the President
B. does need the assent of the President
C. does not need the assent of the President if passed by ratification of States
D. None of the above
Answer» B. does need the assent of the President
discuss
15.

Who is entitled to initiate a Bill for Constitutional Amendments?

A. State Legislative Assemblies
B. Lok Sabha only
C. Either House of Parliament
D. Rajya Sabha only
Answer» C. Either House of Parliament
discuss
16.

Which of the following are correct regarding the Parliament's power of amendment?
1. It can amend the Fundamental Rights.
2. It can amend the basic structure of the Constitution.

A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I and II
D. None of the above
Answer» A. Only I
discuss (1)
17.

Indian Constitution was amended for the first time in :

A. 1950
B. 1951
C. 1952
D. 1953
Answer» B. 1951
discuss
18.

The Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India was: [UDC 1993]

A. added by the first Amendment
B. added by the 24th Amendment
C. added by the 42nd Amendment
D. a part of the original Constitution
Answer» A. added by the first Amendment
discuss
19.

The Amendment regarding the formation of a new State by separating territory from any other State must be passed by:

A. only Lok Sabha
B. only Rajya Sabha
C. both the Houses of Parliament
D. both the Houses of Parliament and before that the opinion of that State is to be ascertained by the President
Answer» D. both the Houses of Parliament and before that the opinion of that State is to be ascertained by the President
discuss
20.

Of all the Amendments in the Indian Constitution, the most Comprehensive and Controversial Amendment was:

A. 42nd
B. 43rd
C. 44th
D. 45th
Answer» A. 42nd
discuss
21.

By which Amendment, the power to amend the Constitution was specifically conferred upon the Parliament? [NDA 1992]

A. 56th
B. 52nd
C. 42nd
D. 24th
Answer» D. 24th
discuss
22.

How many States are required to ratify certain Amendments to the Constitution?

A. Not less than half the number
B. Three-fourths of the number
C. At least 10 States
D. All States in some cases
Answer» A. Not less than half the number
discuss
23.

Which of these Amendments and their subject matter is/are incorrectly matched?
1. 26th Amendment - Abolition of titles and privileges of former rules of princely states
2. 21st Amendment - Curtailed the right to property
3. 51st Amendment - Curbed political defections
4. 61st Amendment - Reduced voting age.

A. I, II and IV
B. II, III and IV
C. I and IV
D. II and III
Answer» D. II and III
discuss
24.

What was the decision of the Supreme Court in Keshavanand Bharati case?

A. Parliament is supreme in the matters of legislation
B. In matters relating to compulsory acquisition of private property the court had the ultimate powers of determining what is public purpose under Article 31
C. The power under Article 368 to amend the Constitution cannot be so exercised as to alter the basic structure or the essential features of the Constitution
D. The Supreme Court has full authority to pronounce on the Constitutional Validity of any State law
Answer» C. The power under Article 368 to amend the Constitution cannot be so exercised as to alter the basic structure or the essential features of the Constitution
discuss
25.

In the Minerva Mills batch of cases the Supreme Court has further reaffirmed its decision in :

A. Golakh Nath Case
B. Keshavanand Bharati case
C. Sajjan Singh Case
D. None of the above
Answer» B. Keshavanand Bharati case
discuss
26.

The decision of the Supreme Court in the Golakh Nath Case was that:

A. Judiciary is independent of Parliament
B. Fundamental Rights could not be amended or abridged
C. the Constitution is supreme
D. the basic structure of the Constitution should not be changed
Answer» B. Fundamental Rights could not be amended or abridged
discuss
27.

Put in chronological order the following Amendments to the Constitution.
1. Addition of Ninth Schedule to the Constitution.
2. Abolition of privy purses and privileges of former princes.
3. Insertion of XI Schedule
4. Removal of Right to Property from Constitutional Rights.

A. I, II, III, IV
B. II, I, IV, III
C. I, II, IV, III
D. IV, I, II, III
Answer» C. I, II, IV, III
discuss
28.

Which of the following provisions can be amended by simple majority?

A. Creation of new States
B. Creation or abolition of upper houses in State Legislatures
C. Reconstitution of existing States
D. All of the above
Answer» D. All of the above
discuss
29.

If the procedure for the election of the President of India is sought to be modified, which of the following conditions are required?
1. An Amendment of the Constitution passed by simple majority in Lok Sabha
2. A referendum
3. An Amendment of the Constitution passed by two-thirds majority in both Houses of Parliament.
4. Ratification of the legislatures of at least half the number of States.

A. 1 and 4
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. None of the above, as the election procedure cannot be changed
Answer» C. 3 and 4
discuss
30.

As per the Anti-Defection Law, the final authority to decide on a member's disqualification from the House is :

A. President
B. Governor
C. Speaker of the House
D. Council of Ministers
Answer» C. Speaker of the House
discuss
31.

When the name of the State is changed or a new State is created, the Constitution of India is required to be amended by Parliament by a :

A. simple majority as under Articles 107 and 108
B. majority of total numbers of both the Houses under Article 368
C. special majority under Article 368
D. special majority after obtaining opinion of the concerned State under Article 3 of the Constitution
Answer» A. simple majority as under Articles 107 and 108
discuss
32.

An Amendment of the Bill relating to the manner and mode of election of the President:

A. does not need the assent of the President
B. does need the assent of the President
C. does not need the assent of the President if passed by ratification of the States
D. on approval of the Bill by the cabinet, assent of the President may be dispensed with
Answer» D. on approval of the Bill by the cabinet, assent of the President may be dispensed with
discuss
33.

Which of the following statements regarding 74th Amendment of the Constitution are correct?
1. It provides for the insertion of a new schedule to the Constitution.
2. It restructures the working of the municipalities.
3. It provides for the reservation of seats for women and scheduled castes in the municipalities.

A. A only
B. A and C
C. A and B
D. A, B and C
Answer» D. A, B and C
discuss
34.

The Amendment procedure laid down in Indian Constitution is on the pattern of:

A. Constitution of Canada
B. Government of India Act, 1935
C. Constitution of South Africa
D. Constitution of USA
Answer» A. Constitution of Canada
discuss
35.

National Capital Territory of Delhi has been constituted by:

A. 71st Amendment
B. 69th Amendment
C. ordinance promulgated by the President
D. ordinance promulgated by the Lieutenant Governor
Answer» B. 69th Amendment
discuss
36.

A merger will not invite action under the Anti-Defection Act if ____ members of a political party decide to join another political party.

A. one-third
B. two-thirds
C. half
D. one-fourth
Answer» B. two-thirds
discuss
37.

Which Amendment provided for an authoritative version of the Constitution in Hindi?

A. 56th
B. 58th
C. 60th
D. 61st
Answer» B. 58th
discuss
38.

Which of the following is true about C. Rajgopalachari?

A. He was the first Speaker of Lok Sabha after independence
B. He was the Chairman of the Constitution Drafting Body of India
C. He was the first and last Indian Governor General of India after independence
D. He was the Governor of Tamil Nadu
Answer» C. He was the first and last Indian Governor General of India after independence
discuss
39.

What is the document published by the government to apprise the public on any issue? [Central Excise 1990]

A. Gazette
B. Report of Public Accounts Committee
C. White Paper
D. None of the above
Answer» C. White Paper
discuss
40.

The expression 'Creamy layer' used in the judgement of the Supreme Court relating to the case regarding reservations refers to: [RRB 1994]

A. those sections of the society which pay income tax
B. those sections of socially and educationally backward classes of the society that are developed
C. those sections of the society that are considered advanced according to the Karpuri Thakur formula
D. all sections of the upper castes of the society
Answer» B. those sections of socially and educationally backward classes of the society that are developed
discuss
41.

Extradiction means:

A. forcing a foreign national to leave the country
B. forcing a citizen of the country to leave the country
C. delivering a foreign national for the trial of offences
D. blocking the trade of other countries with a particular country
Answer» C. delivering a foreign national for the trial of offences
discuss
42.

Civil servants are not permitted to become: [Delhi Police 1994]

A. Chief Election Commissioner
B. Vice-Chancellors of Universities
C. Heads of Commissions of Enquiry
D. Members of Parliament
Answer» D. Members of Parliament
discuss
43.

Next to Hindi, language spoken by the largest number of people in the Indian subcontinent is: [CDS 1993]

A. Bengali
B. Tamil
C. Telugu
D. Marathi
Answer» A. Bengali
discuss
44.

Which of the following statements regarding literacy in India are correct ?
1. A person who can only read but cannot write is not defined literate.
2. Children below 5 years of age are not taken into consideration even if they are able to read and write.
3. For the purpose of census, a person is deemed literate if he or she can read and write with understanding in any of the 22 languages mentioned in the Constitution
4. The fact that a district has attained hundred percent literacy does not mean that the entire population in the district is literate.

A. I, III and IV
B. II, III and IV
C. I, II and III
D. I, II and IV
Answer» B. II, III and IV
discuss
45.

Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the descending order of precedence in the warrant of precedence? [IAS 2004]

A. Attorney General of India - Judges of the Supreme Court - Members of Parliament - Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
B. Judges of the Supreme Court - Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha - Attorney General of India - Members of Parliament
C. Attorney General of' India - Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha - Judges of the Supreme Court - Members of Parliament
D. Judges of the Supreme Court - Attorney General of India - Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha - Members of Parliament
Answer» B. Judges of the Supreme Court - Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha - Attorney General of India - Members of Parliament
discuss
46.

The Ashok Mehta Committee laid greater emphasis on; [CDS 2004]

A. Gram Sabha
B. Mandal Panchayat
C. Taluk Panchayat Samiti
D. Zila Parishad
Answer» B. Mandal Panchayat
discuss
47.

By which Amendment Act of the Constituttion of India were the Directive Principles of the State Policy given precedence over the Fundamental Rights wherever they come into conflict? [CDS 200S]

A. 40th
B. 42nd
C. 44th
D. 46th
Answer» B. 42nd
discuss
48.

Consider the following:
1. Disputes with mobile cellular companies.
2. Motor accident cases,
3. Pension cases.
For which of the above are Lok Adalats held? [IAS 2005]

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer» C. 2 only
discuss
49.

Under which one of the Ministries of the Government of India does the Food and Nutrition Board work? [IAS 2005]

A. Ministry of Agriculture
B. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
C. Ministry of Human Resource Development
D. Ministry of Rural Development
Answer» A. Ministry of Agriculture
discuss
50.

The Archaeological Survey of India is an attached office of the Department/Ministry of: [IAS 2004]

A. Culture
B. Tourism
C. Science and Technology
D. Human Resource Development
Answer» A. Culture
discuss

Done Studing? Take A Test.

Great job completing your study session! Now it's time to put your knowledge to the test. Challenge yourself, see how much you've learned, and identify areas for improvement. Don’t worry, this is all part of the journey to mastery. Ready for the next step? Take a quiz to solidify what you've just studied.

Take a Test