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Chapter:

30+ Bio-Chemical Measurement Solved MCQs

in Basic of Biomedical Instruments

These multiple-choice questions (MCQs) are designed to enhance your knowledge and understanding in the following areas: Biomedical Engineering .

Chapters

Chapter: Bio-Chemical Measurement
1.

The plasma is a viscous, light red liquid, i.e. almost clear in the fasting stage.

A. True
B. False
Answer» B. False
Explanation: False, because the plasma is obtained by centrifuging a blood sample. During centrifugation, the heavy blood cells get packed at the bottom of the centrifuge tube and the plasma can thus be separated. The plasma is a viscous, light yellow liquid, i.e. almost clear in the fasting stage.
2.

method is based on the absorption of electromagnetic radiation in the visible, ultraviolet and infrared ranges.

A. Cardiotocography
B. Ultrasonic therapy
C. Spectrophotometry
D. Diathermy
Answer» C. Spectrophotometry
Explanation: Spectrophotometry is the most important of all the instrumental methods of analysis in clinical chemistry. This method is based on the absorption of electromagnetic radiation in the visible, ultraviolet and infrared ranges.
3.

waves have short wave-length.

A. Microwave
B. Radio wave
C. Gamma rays
D. IR waves
Answer» C. Gamma rays
Explanation: Electromagnetic spectrum ranges from very short wavelengths (including gamma and X-rays) to very long wavelengths (including microwaves and broadcast radio waves). The range of wavelength of gamma rays and X-rays is 10-4 to 10 nm. The range of wavelengths of microwaves and radio-waves is 106 to 109 nm.
4.

The method based on the absorption of radiation of a substance is known as                  

A. Absorption photometry
B. Spectrophotometry
C. Absorption tocometry
D. Absorption spectrophotoscopy
Answer» D. Absorption spectrophotoscopy
Explanation: Electronic transitions correspond to the ultraviolet and visible regions, vibrational transitions to the near infrared and infrared regions and rotational transitions to the infrared and far-infrared regions. The method based on the absorption of radiation of a substance is known as Absorption Spectroscopy.
5.

The ratio of the radiant power transmitted by a sample to the radiant power incident on the sample is known as                  

A. Absorbance
B. Transmittance
C. Optical density
D. Photometric concentration
Answer» B. Transmittance
Explanation: Let us suppose, Po is the incident radiant energy and P is the energy which is transmitted. The ratio of the radiant power transmitted by a sample to the radiant power incident on the sample is known as the transmittance.
6.

If absorbance is plotted graphically against concentration, the graph is                    

A. Parabola
B. Increasing
C. Straight line
D. Decreasing
Answer» C. Straight line
Explanation: If absorbance is plotted graphically against concentration, a straight line is obtained. A graph derived from the transmittance data will not be a straight line unless transmittance (or percent transmission) is plotted on the log axis of a semi-log paper.
7.

is not a source of radiant energy.

A. Tungsten-mercury lamp
B. Tungsten lamp
C. Xenon-mercury arc
D. Deuterium discharge lamp
Answer» A. Tungsten-mercury lamp
Explanation: Radiant just means energy that can move from one place to another without a medium to carry it. A source of radiant energy, which may be a tungsten lamp, a xenon-mercury arc, hydrogen or deuterium discharge lamp, etc.
8.

Which of the following statements is false about single beam absorption instruments?

A. Tungsten bulb is used as a source
B. Beam splitter is used to get parallel beam
C. Test tube is used as sample holder
D. Photovoltaic cell as detector
Answer» B. Beam splitter is used to get parallel beam
Explanation: Single beam instruments make use of one beam. Therefore, beam splitters are not required in single beam instruments.
9.

Which of the following statement is false about double beam absorption instruments?

A. It is similar to single beam instruments except two beams are present
B. Tungsten bulb is used as a source
C. Reference beam must have a higher intensity than sample beam
D. Both the beams after they pass through respective samples are compared
Answer» C. Reference beam must have a higher intensity than sample beam
Explanation: Reference beam cannot have a higher intensity than sample beam. The beam is split
10.

Which of the following is not an application of colorimeter?

A. Paints
B. Inks
C. Cosmetics
D. Composition detection
Answer» D. Composition detection
Explanation: Colorimeter is not used to determine composition. Its application is paints, dyes, inks, cosmetics and plastics.
11.

In photometers, the readings of the specimen are initially obtained in the form of which of the following parameters?

A. Transmittance
B. Absorption
C. Wavelengths
D. Volume
Answer» A. Transmittance
Explanation: In photometers, the reading is initially obtained in the form of transmittance as some radiation is absorbed by the sample and the rest of the beam is transmitted. This transmitted beam is measured by the detector.
12.

Colorimeters are used in applications where great accuracy is required.

A. True
B. False
Answer» B. False
Explanation: Colorimeters are used in applications where great accuracy is not required. They
13.

In the diagram of single beam photometer given below, identify the component that is not marked.

A. Monochromator
B. Absorption filter
C. Sample holder
D. Interference filter
Answer» C. Sample holder
Explanation: In single beam spectrophotometer, the beam passed through the sample which is held in the sample holder. The transmitted beam is measured by the detector.
14.

Colorimeters are used to determine the concentration of solutions.

A. True
B. False
Answer» A. True
Explanation: Colorimetry is the science of colour measurement. It is used to determine the concentrations of solutions.
15.

Which of the following is the purpose of balance indicator in double beam photometer or colorimeter?

A. Selects a particular wavelength
B. Splits the wavelength selected into two equal beams
C. Detects and indicates the amount of light falling on it
D. Indicates the difference between the output of two photometers
Answer» D. Indicates the difference between the output of two photometers
Explanation: It compares the output of the two photometers obtained using two beams. It indicates the output.
16.

Which of the following is the purpose of the beam splitter in double beam photometer or colorimeter?

A. Splits beam into two equal intensity beams
B. Splits beam in such a way that sample beam has higher intensity
C. Splits beam in such a way that a reference beam has higher intensity
D. Merge two equal intensity beams into single beam
Answer» A. Splits beam into two equal intensity beams
Explanation: Beam splitter splits beam into two equal intensity beams. One beam passes through
17.

Which of the following is a source used in spectroscopy?

A. LASER
B. Tube light
C. Sodium vapour lamp
D. Tungsten lamp
Answer» D. Tungsten lamp
Explanation: Tungsten lamp is the source used in spectroscopy. It is the source used in UV, Visible spectroscopy.
18.

Which of the following indicate leakages in a condenser?

A. The concentration of sodium in steam and condensate are very high
B. The concentration of sodium in steam and condensate are very low
C. The concentration of sodium in steam and condensate are equal
D. The concentration of sodium in steam and condensate are not equal
Answer» D. The concentration of sodium in steam and condensate are not equal
Explanation: If the concentration of sodium in steam and condensate are not equal, it means that leakage is present in the condenser. If the values are equal, then it means that no leakage is present.
19.

Which of the following are added for pH adjustment in sodium analyser?

A. Acidic solution
B. Basic solution
C. Hydrazine
D. Ammonia buffer
Answer» D. Ammonia buffer
Explanation: Ammonia buffer is added for pH adjustment in sodium analyser. This is added to the reference and sample solutions.
20.

Normally, electrodes measure which of the following parameters?

A. Activity
B. Activity co-efficient
C. Blank constant
D. Ionic co-efficient
Answer» A. Activity
Explanation: Normally, electrodes measure activity of the ion. It is a measure of free ions in the solution.
21.

Which of the following represent the concentration of a solution?

A. Only free ions
B. Only bound ions
C. Free ions and bound ions
D. Either free ions or bound ions
Answer» C. Free ions and bound ions
Explanation: Concentration refers to the sum of free ions and bound ions. Activity refers only to free ions.
22.

Sodium selective electrode provides a good response in measurement when the pH is above which of the following values?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 10
Answer» D. 10
Explanation: Sodium selective electrode provides a good response in measurement when the pH of the solution is above 10. Hence, the buffer solution is used.
23.

Which of the following are used to free bound ions or liberate bound ions?

A. Colouring agents
B. Ammonia Buffer
C. Reagents
D. Iodine solution
Answer» C. Reagents
Explanation: Reagents are used to free bound ions or liberate bound ions. The addition of reagent prevents unwanted ions from entering into the measurement.
24.

In which part of the apparatus is the reference and ion selective electrodes placed?

A. Head tank
B. Flow cell
C. Reservoir
D. Solenoid valve
Answer» B. Flow cell
Explanation: The reference and ion selective electrodes are placed in the flow cell. Sample is maintained in the constant head tank.
25.

The output of the electrode in sodium analyser is proportional to which of the following parameters?

A. Activity
B. Concentration
C. Negative logarithm of sodium ion concentration
D. Logarithm of sodium ion concentration
Answer» D. Logarithm of sodium ion concentration
Explanation: The output of the electrode in sodium analyser is proportional to the logarithm of sodium ion concentration. The value is recorded and indicated.
26.

Cleaning process gives accuracy and long life.

A. True
B. False
Answer» A. True
Explanation: Cleaning process gives accuracy and long life. Spray nozzles can be used to clean the electrodes.
27.

Presence of sodium sulphate in water causes corrosion in boilers.

A. True
B. False
Answer» A. True
Explanation: Presence of sodium sulphate in water causes corrosion in boilers. Sodium hydroxide and sodium chloride salts also cause corrosion.
28.

The blood corpuscles are of kinds.

A. 5
B. 4
C. 2
D. 3
Answer» D. 3
Explanation: The blood corpuscles are of 3 types. They are colored corpuscles- erythrocytes, Colorless corpuscles – Leucocytes and blood platelets.
29.

Blood is stained with stain.

A. Methylene blue
B. Safranin
C. Leishman stain
D. Carbol fuchsine
Answer» C. Leishman stain
Explanation: Leishman stain is used in microscopy for staining blood smears. It is generally used to differentiate and identify leucocytes malaria parasites and trypanosomas.
30.

Process of formation of blood corpuscles is called                            

A. Haemolysis
B. Haemozoin
C. Haemopoesis
D. Haemoter
Answer» C. Haemopoesis
Explanation: The Process of formation of blood corpuscles is called Haemopoesis. It occurs in the bone marrow.
31.

Graveyard of RBC is                  

A. Spleen
B. Liver
C. Kidney
D. Thymus
Answer» A. Spleen
Explanation: Old red blood cells are recycled in the spleen. Platelets and white blood cells are stored there. Spleen also helps fight certain kinds of bacteria that cause pneumonia and meningitis.
32.

Which leucocytes release heparin and histamine in blood?

A. Neutrophil
B. Basophil
C. Eosinophil
D. Monocytes
Answer» B. Basophil
Explanation: Basophil contains heparin which is an anticoagulant. It is a type of white blood cell.
33.

Which blood cells secrets antibody?

A. Eosinophils
B. Monocytes
C. Lymphocytes
D. Neutrophils
Answer» C. Lymphocytes
Explanation: A Lymphocyte is a type of white blood cell that is a part of the immune system. There are 2 main types of Lymphocyte: B cells and T cells. The B cells produce antibodies that are used to attack invading bacteria, viruses and toxins.
34.

Vitamin essential for blood clotting is                            

A. Vitamin K
B. Vitamin A
C. Vitamin B
D. Vitamin C
Answer» A. Vitamin K
Explanation: Vitamin K is used by the body to help blood clot. Warfarin is used to slow blood clotting. By helping the blood clot vitamin k might decrease the effectiveness of warfarin.
35.

Hemoglobin is a                        

A. Reproductive pigment
B. Respiratory pigment
C. Carbohydrate
D. Fat
Answer» B. Respiratory pigment
Explanation: Hemoglobin is a protein in RBC that carries oxygen throughout the body. Lower Hemoglobin counts indicate anemia.
36.

Absence of which clotting factor leads to Hemophilia-A?

A. Factor VII
B. Factor VIII
C. Factor IX
D. Factor X
Answer» B. Factor VIII
Explanation: Hemophilia-A is also called factor VIII deficiency or classic hemophilia. It is a genetic disorder caused by missing or defective factor VIII a clotting protein.
37.

What prevents the clotting of blood inside blood vessels?

A. Heparin
B. Serotonin
C. Fibrinogen
D. Fibrin
Answer» A. Heparin
Explanation: Heparin is an anticoagulant that prevents the formation of blood clots. It is used to treat blood clots in veins arteries or lung.
38.

Red cell count is carried out by                    

A. Electrogram
B. Sphygmomanometer
C. Haemoglobinometer
D. Haemocytometer
Answer» D. Haemocytometer
Explanation: Haemocytometer is a device designed and used for counting blood cells. It was invented by Louis Charles Malassez.
39.

Blood is five times more viscous than distilled water.

A. True
B. False
Answer» A. True
Explanation: When hematocrit raised to 60% or 70% the blood viscosity can become as great as 5 to 6 times that of water and it flows through blood vessels is greatly retarded because of increased resistance to flow.

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