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930+ Indian Penal Code (IPC 1860) Solved MCQs

These multiple-choice questions (MCQs) are designed to enhance your knowledge and understanding in the following areas: Chemical Engineering , Bachelor of Laws (LLB) , Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) .

801.

Z takes away a golden chain of his wife which was given by her father as Stridhan, without her consent, and pledges it to raise money for domestic use. Z is

A. Not guilty of theft as the chain was their joint property
B. Not guilty of theft as the property was temporarily taken away
C. Guilty of theft
D. Guilty of criminal misappropriation.
Answer» C. Guilty of theft
802.

A, a police constable, used third-degree measures against a person on the order of his superior officer. As a result of this torture, the person lost one of his eyes. Which one of the following shall be the ground of defence to succeed in acquitting the accused constable?

A. Torture was committed on the order of the superior
B. Torture was committed on account of fear of losing the job.
C. Torture was committed on account of fear of being suspended
D. Torture was committed on account of fear of instant death.
Answer» D. Torture was committed on account of fear of instant death.
803.

Against which one of the following offences, does the right of private defence of property extend to the voluntary causing of death?

A. Theft
B. Criminal misappropriation
C. Robbery
D. Criminal trespass.
Answer» C. Robbery
804.

Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is a

A. 100-years-old man
B. 6-years-old boy
C. 12-year-old girl
D. 18-year-old girl.
Answer» B. 6-years-old boy
805.

Voluntary intoxication.

A. Makes an offence more serious or increases the gravity of an offence
B. Is a weak defence to a criminal charge
C. Is no excuse for the commission of an offence
D. Reduces the gravity of all the offences.
Answer» B. Is a weak defence to a criminal charge
806.

Good faith within the meaning of the Indian Penal Code means

A. An act done with due care and attention
B. An actual belief that the act done is not contrary to law
C. An act, in fact, done honestly
D. An act done under bonafide belief.
Answer» A. An act done with due care and attention
807.

A, a surgeon, in good faith communicates to a patient, his opinion that he (patient) cannot live. The patients dies in consequence of the shock. A is guilty of

A. Murder
B. Causing death by negligence
C. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
D. No offence
Answer» D. No offence
808.

Criminal conspiracy is an agreement between two or more persons to

A. Do or cause to be done an illegal act
B. Do or cause to be done an illegal act, or an act which is not illegal by illegal means.
C. Do or cause to be done ac act which is illegal by illegal means
D. Commit an offence.
Answer» B. Do or cause to be done an illegal act, or an act which is not illegal by illegal means.
809.

Some militants are hiding in a house occupied by an individual. Militants are engaged in an attack on the police party by firing from the house. The police persons, to defend themselves, fire towards the house and an innocent person in the house is hit by the bullet and dies as a result. The police persons are guilty of

A. No offence
B. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
C. Murder
D. Death by rash or negligent act.
Answer» A. No offence
810.

A, intending to cause theft instigates B, to take property belonging to Z out of Z’s possession. A induces B to believe that the property belongs to A. B takes the property out of Z’s possession in good faith, believing it to be A’s property. With reference to the above statement Assertion (A): A is guilty of abetment of theft even if B is innocent. Reason (R): Liability of abettor is not dependent on the liability of the principal accused. Directions:- the following item consist of two statements, one labeled as Assertion A and the other labeled as Reason R. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion A and the Reason R are individually true and if so, whether the reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answers to these items using the codes given below and mark your answer sheet accordingly.

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true.
Answer» A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
811.

Y owed some money to X. X the bullock of Y grazing by the side of a stream and kept it tied in his own house. When Y asked him to release the bullock, X told him that he would do so when the money was paid. X is guilty of

A. Criminal breach of trust
B. Criminal misappropriation
C. Extortion
D. Theft
Answer» D. Theft
812.

A by putting Z in fear of grievous hurt dishonestly induces Z to sign or affix his seal in a blank paper, and delivers it to A. Z signs and delivers the paper to A. A has committed.

A. Robbery
B. Dacoity
C. Theft
D. Extortion
Answer» D. Extortion
813.

A threatens to publish a defamatory libel concerning Z unless Z gives him money. He thus induces Z to give him money. A has committed the offence of

A. Defamation
B. Extortion
C. Criminal intimidation
D. Mischief
Answer» B. Extortion
814.

X and his four associated attempted to commit theft at the place of Y and caused hurt to Y. They were forced to retreat without collecting the booty because of stiff resistance by the inmates. They are guilty of

A. Theft
B. Robbery
C. Criminal misappropriation
D. Dacoity
Answer» D. Dacoity
815.

X and Y agreed to commit murder of Z by poisoning and Y was to procure poison, but he did not procure it. X and Y are guilty of

A. Abetment of murder by conspiracy
B. Attempt to murder with the aid of section 34 IPC
C. No offence
D. Criminal conspiracy to murder Z.
Answer» A. Abetment of murder by conspiracy
816.

Consider the following statements: 1. In conspiracy, it is in the fact of combination that the unlawfulness resides. Combination to injure gives cause of action 2. Where the element of combination is absent, the motive is immaterial 3. Combination for legitimate promotion of their interest give no cause of action Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer» D. 1, 2 and 3
817.

X sees Z committing what appears to X to be a murder. X in exercise, to the best of his judgement, exerted in good faith, of the powers, which the law gives to all persons of apprehending murderers in the act, seizes Z in order to bring Z before proper authorities. But it turns out that Z was acting in exercise of his right of self defence. X is guilty of

A. No offence
B. Wrongful restraint
C. Wrongful confinement
D. Assault.
Answer» A. No offence
818.

X a surgeon, amputates the right hand index finger of Y a 14 year old beggar, with Y’s consent, and in good faith that this would enable Y to get more alms. In this case

A. X commits no offence as the act was done with the consent of Y
B. X commits an offence as the consent of a child of 14 years is of no avail
C. X commits no offence as the act was done in good faith for the benefit and with the consent of Y
D. X is not exempted from criminal liability as the act done was not in good faith within the meaning of Indian Penal Code.
Answer» D. X is not exempted from criminal liability as the act done was not in good faith within the meaning of Indian Penal Code.
819.

X having sufficient food does not provide some food to a beggar who dies of hunger. X is guilty of

A. No offence
B. Attempt to murder
C. Murder
D. Causing death by rash or negligent act
Answer» A. No offence
820.

Assertion (A): A servant removes wrist watch from the table and keeps it concealed under the carpet in the same room for fear of being detected. He is guilty of theft. Reason (R): To be guilty of the offence of theft, a person must move and take away the property stolen. Directions: - the following item consist of two statements, one labeled as Assertion A and the other labeled as Reason R. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion A and the Reason R are individually true and if so, whether the reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answers to these items using the codes given below and mark your answer

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true.
Answer» A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
821.

For abetment by conspiracy

A. A mere agreement between two or more persons to do an unlawful act is enough
B. Some act or illegal omission must take place in pursuance of an engagement between two or more persons to do an unlawful act.
C. There must be an intentional aid by one person to another for the doing of an offence
D. One person must instigate the other for the commission of an offence.
Answer» B. Some act or illegal omission must take place in pursuance of an engagement between two or more persons to do an unlawful act.
822.

The India Penal Code came into effect from

A. 1st June, 1860
B. 1st August, 1860
C. 6th October, 1860
D. None of the above.
Answer» C. 6th October, 1860
823.

The Indian Penal Code is extended to :

A. All the States of India
B. Whole of India except the State of J&K
C. All Union Territories of India
D. None of the above.
Answer» B. Whole of India except the State of J&K
824.

Who prepared the draft of Indian Penal Code:

A. Lord Denning
B. Lord Chemsford
C. Lord Macaualy
D. Pollock
Answer» C. Lord Macaualy
825.

The Indian Penal Code is divided into :

A. XXIII Chapters & 511 Sections
B. XXIXI Chapters & 511 Sections
C. XXIX Chapters & 501 Sections
D. None of the above.
Answer» A. XXIII Chapters & 511 Sections
826.

The jurisdiction to try a person for an offence depends upon, under the General Principle of Criminal Law is :

A. Nationality of the person
B. Place of commission of crime, within local area of such jurisdiction
C. A place where such person is found.
D. None of these
Answer» B. Place of commission of crime, within local area of such jurisdiction
827.

The motive under section 81 of IPC should be:

A. prevention of harm to person
B. prevention of harm to property
C. both (a) and (b)
D. either (a) or (b).
Answer» D. either (a) or (b).
828.

‘Infancy’ as an exception has been provided under:

A. section 80
B. section 81
C. section 82
D. section 84.
Answer» C. section 82
829.

Section 82 of IPC provides that nothing is an offence which is done by a child under:

A. six years of age
B. seven years of age
C. nine years of age
D. ten years of age.
Answer» B. seven years of age
830.

Section 82 of IPC enunciates:

A. a presumption of fact
B. a rebuttable presumption of law
C. a conclusive or irrebuttable presumption of law
D. none of the above.
Answer» C. a conclusive or irrebuttable presumption of law
831.

A person is stated to be partially incapax under section 83, IPC if he is aged:

A. above seven years and under twelve years
B. above seven years and under ten years
C. above seven years and under sixteen years
D. above seven years and under eighteen years.
Answer» A. above seven years and under twelve years
832.

Section 83 of IPC lays down:

A. a presumption of fact
B. an inconclusive or rebuttable presumption of law
C. conclusive or irrebuttable presumption of law
D. irrebuttable presumption of fact.
Answer» B. an inconclusive or rebuttable presumption of law
833.

Section 82 of IPC lays down the rule of:

A. wholly incapax
B. partially incapax
C. both (a) & (b)
D. either (a) or (b).
Answer» A. wholly incapax
834.

Under section 82 & section 83 of IPC an offence is punishable if it is done by a child:

A. of below seven years of age
B. of above seven years of age but below twelve years if he has not attained sufficient maturity and understanding
C. of above seven years of age but below twelve years having attained sufficient maturity and understanding
D. all the above.
Answer» C. of above seven years of age but below twelve years having attained sufficient maturity and understanding
835.

Which of the following pair is not correctly matched:

A. Mens Rea – R. v. Prince
B. Necessity – D.P.P. v. Beard
C. Insanity – Mc’Naughten case
D. Intoxication – Basudeo v. State of Pepsu.
Answer» C. Insanity – Mc’Naughten case
836.

The maxim ‘actus non facit rea nisi mens sit rea’ means:

A. crime has to be coupled with guilty mind
B. there can be no crime without a guilty mind
C. crime is the result of guilty mind
D. criminal mind leads to crime.
Answer» B. there can be no crime without a guilty mind
837.

“In every statute, mens rea is to be implied unless the contrary is shown.”: This view was expressed in-

A. Sherras v. De Rutzen
B. R. v. Dudley & Stephen
C. Harding v. Price
D. R. v. Prince.
Answer» A. Sherras v. De Rutzen
838.

Which of the following is correct for the aforesaid:
I. The physical aspect of crime is actus reas.
II. The mental aspect of crime is mens rea.
III. The motive is the desire to commit crime

A. I & II are correct but III is not correct
B. only II & III
C. only II & III
D. all the above.
Answer» D. all the above.
839.

Section 84 of IPC provides for:

A. medical insanity
B. legal insanity
C. moral insanity
D. unsoundness of mind of any kind.
Answer» B. legal insanity
840.

Irresistible impulse is a defence:

A. in India
B. in England
C. in India and England both
D. neither in India nor in England.
Answer» D. neither in India nor in England.
841.

A hangman who hangs the prisoners pursuant to the order of the court is exempt from criminal liability by virtue of:

A. section 77 of IPC
B. section 78 of IPC
C. section 79 of IPC
D. section 76 of IPC.
Answer» B. section 78 of IPC
842.

Insanity as a defence means that a person at the time of doing an act, by reason of unsoundness of mind is incapable of knowing:

A. the nature of the act
B. that what he is doing is wrong
C. that what he is doing is contrary to law
D. either (a) or (b) or (c).
Answer» D. either (a) or (b) or (c).
843.

Which of the following is correct:

A. the burden of proof that the accused was not insane at the time of commission of offence is on the prosecution
B. the burden of proving that the accused was insane at the time of commission of offence is on the accused
C. there is a rebuttable presumption of fact that accused was insane at the time of commission of the offence
D. it is a matter of inference to be drawn by the court on the facts proved by the prosecution.
Answer» B. the burden of proving that the accused was insane at the time of commission of offence is on the accused
844.

For unsoundness of mind, the impairment of the cognitive faculty of mind to escape criminal liability:

A. must be total
B. must be partial
C. both (a) & (b)
D. none of the above.
Answer» A. must be total
845.

Intoxication as defence is contained in:

A. section 85 of IPC
B. section 86 of IPC
C. section 87 of IPC
D. both (a) & (b).
Answer» D. both (a) & (b).
846.

For a defence of intoxication, to escape criminal liability, the degeneration of mental faculties:

A. must be total
B. must be partial
C. both (a) & (b)
D. only (b) above is correct & (a) is incorrect.
Answer» A. must be total
847.

For a defence of intoxication, to escape criminal liability, the intoxication:

A. can be self-administered
B. administered against his will or knowledge
C. should not be self-administered
D. all the above.
Answer» B. administered against his will or knowledge
848.

In cases where the act involves a specific mens rea, in cases of intoxication under section 86 of IPC:

A. the existence of mens rea is presumed
B. the specific mens rea is not presumed
C. the specific mens rea depends upon the attending circumstances & the degree of intoxication
D. none of the above.
Answer» C. the specific mens rea depends upon the attending circumstances & the degree of intoxication
849.

The doctrine ‘volenti nonfit injuria’ is contained in:

A. section 87 of IPC
B. section 88 of IPC
C. section 89 of IPC
D. all the above.
Answer» D. all the above.
850.

The defence of ‘consent’ applies to:

A. private wrongs
B. public wrongs
C. both (a) & (b)
D. neither (a) nor (b).
Answer» A. private wrongs

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