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120+ Industrial Relation and Labour Law Solved MCQs

These multiple-choice questions (MCQs) are designed to enhance your knowledge and understanding in the following areas: Bachelor of Business Administration (BBA) .

51.

Which are the two traits on which the award of an arbitrator rests on?

A. compromise and liberty
B. fair play and impartiality
C. equity and justice
D. all of the above
Answer» C. equity and justice
52.

The decision of the arbitrator should be based on which approach?

A. quasi - judicial
B. split the difference
C. judicial
D. non – judicial
Answer» B. split the difference
53.

The procedure is relatively _____ when compared to that in ordinary courts or labour tribunals.

A. expeditious
B. compromising
C. binding
D. delayed
Answer» A. expeditious
54.

What is the main drawback of compulsory arbitration?

A. compulsory implication of award
B. non - compromising
C. it deprives both the parties of their very important and fundamental rights
D. none of the above
Answer» C. it deprives both the parties of their very important and fundamental rights
55.

Which of these is a condition for which compulsory arbitration is imposed on the disputing parties?

A. when an industrial dispute is apprehended
B. disputing parties fail to arrive at a settlement by a voluntary method
C. the issue of the dispute should be mentioned in the arbitration agreement
D. all of the above
Answer» B. disputing parties fail to arrive at a settlement by a voluntary method
56.

Which of the following is a quality which should be present in a successful arbitrator?

A. high integrity
B. knowledge of collective bargaining
C. understanding of complexities of labour – management relationship
D. all of the above
Answer» B. knowledge of collective bargaining
57.

Which are the departments from where a qualified arbitrator be hired?

A. legal profession
B. government servants
C. psychologists
D. all of the above
Answer» D. all of the above
58.

With the advocacy of __________ voluntary arbitration came into prominence for resolving industrial disputes.

A. bombay industrial disputes act
B. mahatma gandhi
C. v. v. giri
D. none of the above
Answer» B. mahatma gandhi
59.

__________ reiterated the faith of the parties in voluntary arbitration.

A. the code of discipline (1958)
B. indian labour conference (1962)
C. ilo
D. industrial disputes act
Answer» A. the code of discipline (1958)
60.

The need for a wide acceptance of voluntary arbitration was reiterated by _____.

A. national tribunal
B. court of enquiry
C. indian labour conference (1962)
D. ilo
Answer» C. indian labour conference (1962)
61.

The importance of adjudication has been emphasised by the ________.

A. government
B. civil court
C. supreme court
D. none of the above
Answer» C. supreme court
62.

The adjudication machinery has to consider not only the demands of _______ justice but also the claims of national economy.

A. economic
B. social
C. freedom of contract
D. none of the above
Answer» B. social
63.

__________ involves intervention in the dispute by a third party appointed by the government for the purpose of deciding the nature of final settlement.

A. adjudication
B. national tribunal
C. arbitration
D. none of the above
Answer» A. adjudication
64.

Who is the deciding authority to put the resolving matter into adjudication?

A. disputing parties
B. conciliator
C. trade union
D. government
Answer» D. government
65.

Which is the ultimate legal remedy for the settlement of an unresolved dispute?

A. court of enquiry
B. adjudication
C. arbitration
D. national tribunal
Answer» B. adjudication
66.

__________ has criticised compulsory arbitration on four main grounds.

A. alexander frey
B. v.v. giri
C. mahatma gandhi
D. american labour movement
Answer» A. alexander frey
67.

A labour court shall consist of one person who has been a District Judge for a period of not less than ___ years.

A. 3 years
B. 7 years
C. 5 years
D. 10 years
Answer» A. 3 years
68.

How many central government industrial tribunals cum labour courts in India?

A. 10
B. 9
C. 15
D. 12
Answer» D. 12
69.

In which year did factories act come into force?

A. 23rd september, 1948
B. 1st april, 1949
C. 4th april, 1949
D. 12th september, 1948
Answer» B. 1st april, 1949
70.

How many days in advance does the occupier of a factory premises gives notice of occupancy to the chief inspector?

A. 15 days
B. 20 days
C. 10 days
D. 25 days
Answer» A. 15 days
71.

As per the factories act, after how many years should the factory premises be painted and refurbished?

A. 5 years
B. 2 years
C. 10 years
D. annually
Answer» A. 5 years
72.

As per section 2 in factories act, who will be called as an adult?

A. a person who has completed 21 years of age
B. a person who is less than 19 years of age
C. a person who has completed 24 years of age
D. a person who has completed 18 years of age
Answer» D. a person who has completed 18 years of age
73.

Section 2(g) under the act defines _______

A. factory
B. manufacturing process
C. worker
D. occupants
Answer» B. manufacturing process
74.

Maintenance of buildings ------------------- c.) Section 6 4. Protection of eyes ------------------------- d.) Section 40A

A. ) 1 - c, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - b
B. ) 1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - c
C. ) 1 - c, 2 - d, 3 - a, 4 - b
D. ) 1 - a, 2 - c, 3 - d, 4 - b
Answer» A. ) 1 - c, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - b
75.

If there are ____ numbers of employees, then the employer has to provide a canteen.

A. 250
B. 510
C. 320
D. 100
Answer» A. 250
76.

Which of the following diseases is not mentioned in the section 89 of factories act?

A. anthrax
B. asbestosis
C. phosphorus
D. pneumonia
Answer» D. pneumonia
77.

If a company has _____ number of employees, then the appointment of a safety officer is mandatory under the factories act.

A. 500
B. 100
C. 1000
D. 10000
Answer» C. 1000
78.

Fitness certificate granted under "sub section 2" of the act is valid for how many months?

A. 10 months
B. 24 months
C. 6 months
D. 12 months
Answer» D. 12 months
79.

From the below mentioned options, which of the following is not mentioned under the welfare provision in the factories act?

A. canteen
B. creches
C. drinking water
D. first aid
Answer» C. drinking water
80.

Which section of the act covers the topic annual leave with wages?

A. section 27
B. section 5
C. section 86
D. section 79
Answer» D. section 79
81.

How many hours in a week can an adult work as per factories act?

A. 9 hours
B. 56 hours
C. 34 hours
D. 48 hours
Answer» D. 48 hours
82.

If there are 100 workers in a factory, then one seat is allotted to how many workers

A. 25
B. 50
C. 100
D. 75
Answer» A. 25
83.

Section 99 of factories act deals with which of the following options?

A. appeal
B. penalty for permitting double employment of a child
C. display of notice
D. penalty for obstructing inspectors
Answer» B. penalty for permitting double employment of a child
84.

Choose the correct option that states the type of leave facilities for a worker mentioned in the factories act?

A. maternity leave
B. casual leave
C. annual leave with wages as per factories act
D. national & festival holidays
Answer» C. annual leave with wages as per factories act
85.

What is the maximum amount of fees to be paid for licensing process?

A. 5 years
B. 1 year
C. 3 years
D. 7 years
Answer» A. 5 years
86.

Which section of the factories act covers the list of diseases given in the schedule?

A. section 3
B. section 25
C. section 87
D. section 89
Answer» D. section 89
87.

Under section 106, a complaint must be filed within ____ months of the date when the commission of the offence came to the knowledge of an inspector.

A. 6 months
B. 3 months
C. 1 months
D. 12 months
Answer» B. 3 months
88.

Section 76 empowers the state government to make rules for _____

A. the period of work for all children employed
B. fitness certificate to work in a factory
C. canteen facilities
D. prescribing physical standards to be attained by the young persons for working in factories
Answer» D. prescribing physical standards to be attained by the young persons for working in factories
89.

Which of the below mentioned provisions come under safety provisions?

A. lighting
B. crèche
C. self – acting machinery
D. ventilation and temperature
Answer» C. self – acting machinery
90.

In cubic meters how much space is allotted to each worker after the commencement of factories act?

A. 9.5
B. 10
C. 14.2
D. 12.4
Answer» C. 14.2
91.

In which year was the first suggestion for the legislation in the act made?

A. 1934
B. 1925
C. 1936
D. 1937
Answer» B. 1925
92.

The first suggestion for legislation in the act was made by a private member's bill called __________.

A. legislative bill
B. wages bill
C. weekly payment bill
D. none of the above
Answer» C. weekly payment bill
93.

Choose the correct date and year on which payment of wages act was passed?

A. 23rd april, 1936
B. 28th march, 1937
C. 25th april, 1937
D. 27th april, 1936
Answer» A. 23rd april, 1936
94.

In which year did the payment of wages act come into force?

A. 23rd april, 1925
B. 28th march, 1940
C. 23rd april, 1936
D. 28th march, 1937
Answer» D. 28th march, 1937
95.

What is the maximum wage period for the payment of wages?

A. 1 month
B. 40 days
C. 45 days
D. 60 days
Answer» A. 1 month
96.

In any factory or industrial establishment where less than 1000 employees are employed the wages shall be paid before the expiry of the ____ day.

A. 10th day
B. 2nd day
C. 7th day
D. none of the above
Answer» C. 7th day
97.

Which of these deductions under section 7 of payment of wages act is not authorised?

A. deduction for fines
B. deduction for payment of income tax
C. deduction for payment of insurance
D. deduction for payment of uniform and property
Answer» D. deduction for payment of uniform and property
98.

What is the maximum limit of fine to be imposed on an employee?

A. should not exceed an amount equal to 5% of the wages payable
B. should not exceed an amount equal to 1% of the wages payable
C. should not exceed an amount equal to 3% of the wages payable
D. should not exceed an amount equal to 10% of the wages payable
Answer» C. should not exceed an amount equal to 3% of the wages payable
99.

Which section of the act covers deduction for damage or loss?

A. section 10
B. section 9
C. section 12
D. section 7
Answer» A. section 10
100.

Deduction for services rendered --------- C. Section 7 4. Deductions from absence of duty --------- D. Section 11

A. 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b
B. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b, 4-d
C. 1-b, 2-d, 3-c, 4-a
D. 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c
Answer» A. 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b

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