120+ Business Policy and Project Management Solved MCQs

1.

________ is called as a planned activity.

A. project
B. activity
C. program
D. task
Answer» A. project
2.

------------- project interfaces with the organization.

A. information system
B. embedded system
C. process control system
D. objective driven system
Answer» A. information system
3.

In product-driven projects, the objectives of the project are defined in terms of ___________.

A. functional requirements only.
B. resource and non-functional requirements.
C. functional and quality requirements.
D. resource requirements only.
Answer» C. functional and quality requirements.
4.

__________ is record of how much the organization is willing to spend on the system.

A. resource requirements
B. functional requirements
C. security requirements
D. non functional requirements
Answer» A. resource requirements
5.

Projects are __________ by definition and therefore more uncertain than normal undertakings.

A. routine
B. non-routine
C. specific
D. controllable
Answer» B. non-routine
6.

The project deliverable is supplied to customers release by release in a scheduled time intervals is referred as

A. agile
B. incremental delivery
C. v-process model
D. spiral model
Answer» B. incremental delivery
7.

Expand CCTA

A. center combing and technology agent
B. central computer and telecommunications agency
C. center for centralized and technology agent
D. center computer and technical agency
Answer» B. central computer and telecommunications agency
8.

_________ standards should be in place to ensure that changes to requirements are implemented in a safe and orderly way.

A. change control and configuration management
B. time control and configuration management
C. access control and configuration management
D. quality control and configuration management
Answer» A. change control and configuration management
9.

The organization as part of its monitoring and control policy may have a ________
in place which dictates that certain statistics have to be collected at various stages of a
project.

A. measurement programme.
B. system programme.
C. software programme.
D. testing programme.
Answer» A. measurement programme.
10.

The products handed over to the clients at the end of projects are called as _____________.

A. software.
B. application program.
C. deliverables.
D. intermediate products.
Answer» C. deliverables.
11.

The relationship between program design and program specification can be portrayed in _________.

A. data flow diagram
B. product flow diagram
C. network diagram
D. data flow diagram
Answer» B. product flow diagram
12.

_________ time is the time between start and end of a task.

A. turnaround.
B. elapsed.
C. throughput.
D. pessimistic time.
Answer» B. elapsed.
13.

Project planning is an _________ process.

A. continuous.
B. iterative.
C. time consuming.
D. conventional.
Answer» B. iterative.
14.

_______ is a collection of projects that all contribute to the same overall organizational goals.

A. software.
B. task
C. programme.
D. activity
Answer» C. programme.
15.

The standard way of evaluating the economic benefits of any projects is to carry out a ________ analysis.

A. price-benefit.
B. cost-benefit.
C. cash flow.
D. fund flow.
Answer» B. cost-benefit.
16.

The costs that include the salaries and other employment costs of the staff involved in the project development and all associated costs are called____________.

A. operational cost.
B. development cost.
C. setup cost.
D. direct cost.
Answer» B. development cost.
17.

Longer term benefits that are considered very difficult to quantify are called _______ .

A. direct benefits.
B. assessable benefits.
C. indirect benefits.
D. intangible benefits.
Answer» D. intangible benefits.
18.

____________ will indicate when expenditure and income will take place.

A. cash flow forecast.
B. cost analysis.
C. fund flow.
D. technical forecast.
Answer» A. cash flow forecast.
19.

_________ is the time taken to break even or pay back the initial investment.

A. back period.
B. payback period.
C. cash back period.
D. rate of return.
Answer» B. payback period.
20.

The calculation of __________ is a project evaluation technique that takes into account the profitability of a project and the timing of cash flows that are produced.

A. npv.
B. tpv.
C. spv.
D. lpv.
Answer» A. npv.
21.

Number of interrelated activities can be organized in different ways are called ______.

A. activity model.
B. network model.
C. hierarchical model.
D. process model.
Answer» D. process model.
22.

RAD stands for _________.

A. resource application development.
B. resource allocation development.
C. rapid application development.
D. rapid action development.
Answer» C. rapid application development.
23.

JAD stands for ____________.

A. joint action development.
B. j2me allocation development.
C. j2se application development.
D. joint application development.
Answer» D. joint application development.
24.

The alternate name for Waterfall model is _________.

A. two-shot model
B. phase shot model
C. three-phase model
D. one-shot model
Answer» D. one-shot model
25.

The first phase of waterfall model is ____________.

A. analysis.
B. feasibility study.
C. coding.
D. user requirements.
Answer» B. feasibility study.
26.

An Elaboration of Waterfall which stresses the necessity for validation activities is known as __________.

A. extended waterfall.
B. iterative model.
C. v-process model.
D. spiral model.
Answer» C. v-process model.
27.

The spiral model is originated by __________.

A. b.w.boehm.
B. b.w.williams.
C. b.w.britto.
D. b.w.hackman.
Answer» A. b.w.boehm.
28.

_______ is a working model of one or more aspects of the projected system.

A. evolutionary model.
B. v-process model.
C. spiral model.
D. software prototyping.
Answer» D. software prototyping.
29.

In Software Prototype, ___________ means copies of input screens are shown to the users on a workstation, but the screens cannot actually be used.

A. simulation.
B. annealing.
C. mock-ups.
D. rad system.
Answer» C. mock-ups.
30.

In software prototype, partial working model is classified into ________.

A. vertical and horizontal.
B. vertical and straight.
C. bended and horizontal.
D. elevated and horizontal.
Answer» A. vertical and horizontal.
31.

SSADM means ___________.

A. straight systems analysis design method.
B. structured systems analysis design method.
C. software systems analysis design method.
D. solutions systems analysis design method.
Answer» B. structured systems analysis design method.
32.

Which are the two levels of development suggested by Booch ?

A. micro and macro processes.
B. inter and intra processes.
C. internal and external processes.
D. small and large processes.
Answer» C. internal and external processes.
33.

'Work expands to fill the time available" is _________ law.

A. brooks.
B. peters.
C. parkinson\s.
D. weinbergs
Answer» C. parkinson\s.
34.

The statement "Putting more people on a late job makes it later" is from _________ law.

A. brooks.
B. peters.
C. parkinson\s.
D. brokers.
Answer» A. brooks.
35.

KLOC indicates ___________.

A. hundred lines of code.
B. source lines of code.
C. thousand lines of code.
D. million lines of code.
Answer» C. thousand lines of code.
36.

Effort = __________.

A. system size x productivity rate.
B. system size x kloc.
C. person in months / sloc.
D. person in months x productivity rate.
Answer» A. system size x productivity rate.
37.

UFP indicates ________.

A. unused function points.
B. unstructured function points.
C. uniform function points.
D. unadjusted function points.
Answer» D. unadjusted function points.
38.

PERT is _________.

A. process evaluation and review technique.
B. product evaluation and review technique.
C. program evaluation and review technique.
D. project evaluation and review technique.
Answer» C. program evaluation and review technique.
39.

The activities have zero duration but are assumed to start at the same time
as the first and the end at the same time as the last one is called__________
activity.

A. hijacked.
B. heuristic.
C. hammocked.
D. hole.
Answer» C. hammocked.
40.

_________ activities on the network diagram have zero duration and use no resources.

A. dangling.
B. dummy.
C. null.
D. zero.
Answer» B. dummy.
41.

Every risk is associated with a likely problem and an _______.

A. activity.
B. outcome.
C. action plan.
D. threats.
Answer» C. action plan.
42.

Risk Management consists of ____________.

A. risk analysis and risk estimation.
B. risk control and risk planning.
C. risk identification and monitoring.
D. risk control, planning, identification and monitoring.
Answer» D. risk control, planning, identification and monitoring.
43.

Ranking of the risks and determining risk aversion strategies is called _______.

A. risk analysis.
B. risk control.
C. risk identification.
D. risk evaluation.
Answer» D. risk evaluation.
44.

________ = risk likelihood X risk impact.

A. risk estimate.
B. risk expenditure.
C. risk identification
D. risk exposure.
Answer» D. risk exposure.
45.

Ranking of the risks and determining risk aversion strategies is called ________.

A. risk analysis.
B. risk control.
C. risk identification
D. risk evaluation.
Answer» D. risk evaluation.
46.

The shortest time in which we could expect to complete the activity, barring outright miracles are called ________.

A. optimistic time.
B. pessimistic time.
C. most likely time.
D. shortest time.
Answer» A. optimistic time.
47.

"Each activity has been scheduled to start at its earliest start date" is called as_________.

A. likelihood.
B. activity schedule.
C. probability.
D. planning.
Answer» A. likelihood.
48.

In _________, the priority activities are allocated resources in ascending order of total. float.

A. total free.
B. total float.
C. technical float.
D. top float.
Answer» B. total float.
49.

_______ is an activity bar chart indicating scheduled activity dates and durations frequently augmented with activity floats.

A. bar chart.
B. ball chart.
C. slip chart.
D. gantt chart.
Answer» A. bar chart.
50.

The priorities we might apply in deciding levels in monitoring is called as ______.

A. hierarchical monitoring.
B. prioritized monitoring.
C. tracking.
D. tracing
Answer» B. prioritized monitoring.
51.

__________ relates to the physical resources used when the software is executed.

A. functionality.
B. maintainability.
C. reliability.
D. efficiency.
Answer» D. efficiency.
52.

Recruitment and training cost falls under _______ cost.

A. developmental.
B. data.
C. profit
D. setup.
Answer» D. setup.
53.

________ are commonly published as lists or charts.

A. resources.
B. work plans.
C. study plans.
D. budgets.
Answer» B. work plans.
54.

Which type of risk factor is most likely to cause problems for a software project developing commercial software?

A. inadequate user documentation.
B. litigation expense.
C. low productivity.
D. cancellation of project.
Answer» A. inadequate user documentation.
55.

Defect prevention is defined as ____________.

A. finding and fixing errors after insertion.
B. finding and fixing errors before release but after insertion.
C. finding and fixing errors after release.
D. avoiding defect insertion.
Answer» B. finding and fixing errors before release but after insertion.
56.

CPM is an acronym for _______.

A. control path method.
B. critical path method.
C. cohesion path method.
D. control path model.
Answer» B. critical path method.
57.

The time by which an activity may be delayed without affecting any subsequent activity is called _________.

A. action float.
B. terminal float.
C. free float
D. null float
Answer» C. free float
58.

The objective of ________ is to avoid or minimize the adverse effects of unforeseen events.

A. risk management.
B. risk maintenance.
C. risk taking.
D. risky job.
Answer» A. risk management.
59.

Which form of software development model is most suited to a system
where all the requirements are known at the start of a project and remain
stable throughout the project?

A. waterfall model.
B. incremental model.
C. evolutionary model.
D. spiral model.
Answer» A. waterfall model.
60.

__________ relates to the ability of the software to be transferred to a different environment.

A. portability.
B. maintainability.
C. reliability.
D. efficiency.
Answer» A. portability.
61.

Which of the following is NOT part of a software quality assurance plan?

A. reference documents.
B. configuration action.
C. supplier control.
D. customer control.
Answer» C. supplier control.
62.

Who is NOT usually present in a technical review?

A. user.
B. quality engineer.
C. the programming tools supplier.
D. specialist with knowledge of the application.
Answer» C. the programming tools supplier.
63.

The expectancy theory of motivation will focus on ________.

A. instrumentality.
B. reliability.
C. reward.
D. assignment specification.
Answer» A. instrumentality.
64.

Herzberg's theory is ________.

A. 3-factor theory.
B. 6-factor theory.
C. 2-factor theory.
D. 1-factor theory.
Answer» C. 2-factor theory.
65.

The saying "Cannot see the wood for the trees" is associated with ______.

A. information superhighway.
B. information overload.
C. information under load.
D. assumption.
Answer» B. information overload.
66.

Closing the project involves _______.

A. identifying next project.
B. identifying the future ventures.
C. identifying the faults.
D. identifying follow-on actions.
Answer» D. identifying follow-on actions.
67.

Ensuring that all the loose ends of a project are tied up is called as ___________.

A. demanding.
B. decomposing.
C. determining.
D. decommissioning.
Answer» D. decommissioning.
68.

A Quality specification is otherwise known as ____________.

A. allocation specification.
B. alternate specification.
C. attribute specification.
D. assignment specification.
Answer» A. allocation specification.
69.

USDP means ________.

A. unified software development process
B. uniform software development process
C. union software development process
D. union software deployment process
Answer» A. unified software development process
70.

The percentage of a particular time interval that a system is usable is called _____.

A. time interval.
B. availability.
C. utility.
D. mean time.
Answer» B. availability.
71.

BS EN ISO 9001:2000 is a _____.

A. external standard.
B. internal standard.
C. cmm standard.
D. tuv standard
Answer» A. external standard.
72.

CMM is acronym of __________.

A. capability maturity model.
B. calculative maturity model.
C. collaborative maturity model.
D. continuous maturity model.
Answer» A. capability maturity model.
73.

The inspection is led by ________, who has had specific training in the technique.

A. an evaluator.
B. a testing professional.
C. a moderator.
D. a reader.
Answer» C. a moderator.
74.

Clean-room software development is created by _______.

A. henry mills.
B. henry ford.
C. john mills.
D. harlan mills.
Answer» D. harlan mills.
75.

_________ is a technique particularly associated with quality circles.

A. quality plans.
B. fire- fighting.
C. quality checking.
D. brain storming.
Answer» D. brain storming.
76.

_________ assesses the quality of a software product.

A. acquirers.
B. developers.
C. independent evaluators.
D. software designers.
Answer» C. independent evaluators.
77.

In PRINCE 2, 2 is meant for ______.

A. number of clients.
B. number of standards.
C. version.
D. edition.
Answer» C. version.
78.

________ is needed to ensure that the project remains under control and that it continues to meet its business justification.

A. yellow tape.
B. white tape.
C. red tape.
D. black tape.
Answer» C. red tape.
79.

Cost Benefit Analysis is done for ___________ feasibility.

A. social
B. technical.
C. process.
D. economical.
Answer» D. economical.
80.

_______ is classified into Functional and Non-functional.

A. project.
B. requirements.
C. start date. .
D. risk
Answer» B. requirements.
81.

________ is some thing that is described by a set of attributes (data items) and that will be manipulated within the software (system).

A. instance.
B. class.
C. object.
D. data.
Answer» C. object.
82.

A _________ contains a set of attributes that act as an aspect, quality, characteristic, or descriptor of the object.

A. ordinary object.
B. data object.
C. template.
D. instance.
Answer» B. data object.
83.

________ is the diagrammatic form for Flow oriented Modelling.

A. functional diagrams.
B. er diagrams.
C. data flow diagrams.
D. system flow diagrams.
Answer» C. data flow diagrams.
84.

_________ is the sub-characteristics of efficiency.

A. understandability.
B. learnability.
C. resource utilization.
D. accuracy.
Answer» C. resource utilization.
85.

Level 0 data flow diagrams are otherwise known as _______ .

A. functional diagrams.
B. er diagrams.
C. data flow diagrams.
D. context flow diagrams.
Answer» D. context flow diagrams.
86.

_______ refers to the ability of the software to interact with other systems.

A. interoperability.
B. reliability.
C. functionality.
D. efficiency.
Answer» A. interoperability.
87.

_______ is a modular building block for computer software.

A. control.
B. flow.
C. process.
D. component.
Answer» D. component.
88.

A ________ specification is concerned with how much is to spent on the system.

A. functional.
B. quality.
C. resource.
D. scope.
Answer» C. resource.
89.

A ________ specification is concerned with how well the functions are to operate.

A. functional.
B. quality.
C. resource.
D. scope.
Answer» B. quality.
90.

_______ is a qualitative measure of the degree to which classes are connected to one another.

A. cohesion.
B. coupling.
C. control.
D. coordination.
Answer» B. coupling.
91.

In _________ stage, the entry, exit and process requirements are identified for each activity.

A. review and publicize plan.
B. identify project scope and objectives.
C. analyse project.
D. identify the products and activities of the project.
Answer» D. identify the products and activities of the project.
92.

___________ is also a part of design modelling.

A. user interface design.
B. testing.
C. behaviour model.
D. analysis.
Answer» A. user interface design.
93.

Deployment diagrams illustrate the ________ view of the system.

A. dynamic.
B. behavioural.
C. activities.
D. static.
Answer» A. dynamic.
94.

The problems experienced in the survey of managers published by Thayer, Pyster and Wood include_________.

A. poor estimates and plans.
B. poor role definition.
C. poor quality control.
D. both a and b.
Answer» D. both a and b.
95.

PRINCE means _____________

A. projects in combined energy
B. projects in controlled energy
C. projects in combined environments.
D. projects in controlled environments
Answer» D. projects in controlled environments
96.

Which forms the basis for management control of software project?

A. methods.
B. tools.
C. process.
D. quality focus.
Answer» C. process.
97.

Requirements engineering provides the mechanism for _________.

A. understanding custom needs.
B. assessing facility.
C. analyzing need.
D. all of the above .
Answer» D. all of the above .
98.

When a customer does not identify a detailed input, processing or output requirements, _______ model is used.

A. prototyping.
B. rad.
C. incremental.
D. spiral.
Answer» A. prototyping.
99.

Projects lies between ___________.

A. job & exploration
B. methods & process
C. quality & quantity
D. tool& process
Answer» A. job & exploration
100.

Expand the mnemonic SMART _________________

A. specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, time constrained.
B. system, measurable, achievable, relevant, time constrained.
C. specific, measurable, archive, relevant, time constrained.
D. specific, measurable, archive, relevant, target.
Answer» A. specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, time constrained.
Tags
Question and answers in Business Policy and Project Management, Business Policy and Project Management multiple choice questions and answers, Business Policy and Project Management Important MCQs, Solved MCQs for Business Policy and Project Management, Business Policy and Project Management MCQs with answers PDF download