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120+ Industrial Relation and Labour Law Solved MCQs

These multiple-choice questions (MCQs) are designed to enhance your knowledge and understanding in the following areas: Bachelor of Business Administration (BBA) .

1.

The Trade Unions Act came into operation from ____.

A. 1st june, 1927
B. 1st may, 1926
C. 1st june, 1926
D. none of the above
Answer» A. 1st june, 1927
2.

In which year's amendment of the act was the word ‘Indian― removed?

A. 1947
B. 1960
C. 1964
D. 1962
Answer» C. 1964
3.

The act came into force from ______.

A. 1st june, 1927
B. 1st april, 1965
C. 1st may, 1960
D. 1st april, 1962
Answer» B. 1st april, 1965
4.

What is the minimum number of trade union members requires in registering themselves as a union?

A. 7
B. 10
C. 5
D. 15
Answer» A. 7
5.

Which act in Industrial Relations defines the term trade union?

A. industrial trade resolution, 1962
B. industrial policy, 1991
C. the trade union and labour relations (consolidation) act, 1992
D. the industrial employment act, 1946
Answer» C. the trade union and labour relations (consolidation) act, 1992
6.

Which of the following acts do not apply to the registered trade unions?

A. the co-operative societies act, 1912
B. the societies registration act, 1860
C. the companies act, 1956
D. all of the above
Answer» B. the societies registration act, 1860
7.

Which of the following is an object on which general funds could be spent as per section 15 of the act?

A. payment to buy goods required for the enterprise
B. payment of employees in the factory establishment
C. the payment of expenses for the administration of trade union or any member thereof
D. all of the above
Answer» D. all of the above
8.

How many member's consent is required to change the name of the registered trade union?

A. 1/4th of the total members
B. 3/4th of the total members
C. half of the total members
D. 2/3rd of the total member
Answer» D. 2/3rd of the total member
9.

How many percentage of votes should be recorded when amalgamating 2 or more registered trade unions?

A. 60%
B. 50%
C. 20%
D. 75%
Answer» A. 60%
10.

How many members should sign the notice of dissolution?

A. 5 members and the secretary of the trade union
B. 10 members and the secretary of the trade union
C. 20 members and the secretary of the trade union
D. 7 members and the secretary of the trade union
Answer» D. 7 members and the secretary of the trade union
11.

On what grounds can a union refuse to admit a person or expel a member?

A. because of goodwill
B. because of misconduct
C. because of change in job
D. none of the above
Answer» B. because of misconduct
12.

-Industrial relations cover the following area(s)

A. collective bargaining
B. labour legislation
C. industrial relations training
D. all of the above
Answer» D. all of the above
13.

-A course on Industrial relations in its MBA programme was firstly introduced by

A. iim indore
B. xlri jamshedpur
C. mdi gurgaon
D. iim bangalore
Answer» B. xlri jamshedpur
14.

-Which of the following is not an approach to industrial relations?

A. unitary approach
B. pluralistic approach
C. marxist approach
D. employee’s approach
Answer» D. employee’s approach
15.

-Under unitary approach, industrial relation is grounded in

A. mutual co-operation
B. individual treatment
C. team work and shared goals
D. all of the above
Answer» D. all of the above
16.

-Pluralistic approach perceives ______ as legitimate representative of employee interests

A. trade unions
B. management
C. board of directors
D. none of the above
Answer» A. trade unions
17.

-In Marxist approach, concerns with wage related disputes are

A. primary
B. secondary
C. tertiary
D. not considered
Answer» B. secondary
18.

-For the Marxists, all strikes are

A. political
B. social
C. legislative
D. none of the above
Answer» A. political
19.

-Which of the following is (are) not acceptable to Marxists?

A. enterprise bargaining
B. employee participation
C. co-operative work culture
D. all of the above
Answer» D. all of the above
20.

No person employed in a public utility service shall go on strike in breach of contract within ____ of giving such a notice.

A. 14 days
B. 6 weeks
C. 7 days
D. none of the above
Answer» B. 6 weeks
21.

Section ____ covers the definition of continuous service.

A. 25b
B. 25
C. 25a
D. 26
Answer» A. 25b
22.

How many days of service will be termed as continuous service when working in a mine industry?

A. 190 days
B. 240 days
C. 365 days
D. 180 days
Answer» A. 190 days
23.

A workmen who is employed in an industrial establishment in the place of another workman whose name is borne on the muster rolls of the establishment is ___

A. temporary workmen
B. permanent workmen
C. badli workmen
D. none of the above
Answer» C. badli workmen
24.

How much compensation does the workman deserve at the time of retrenchment?

A. equivalent to 15 days average pay
B. 6 months
C. equivalent to 30 days average pay
D. none of the above
Answer» A. equivalent to 15 days average pay
25.

Which section deals with compensation to workmen in case of transfer of undertakings?

A. section 25f
B. section 25ff
C. section 25
D. section 25e
Answer» B. section 25ff
26.

How many days of notice period is mandatory for a workman who has been in continuous service for more than a year while retrenchment?

A. 1 month
B. 2 months
C. 15 days
D. 45 days
Answer» A. 1 month
27.

How many does notice is the employer supposed to give before closing down an establishment as per section 25FFA?

A. 90 days
B. 60 days
C. 30 days
D. 120 days
Answer» B. 60 days
28.

If an undertaking is closed down on account of unavoidable circumstances, the compensation to be paid to the workman under clause b of section 25F shall not exceed his average pay of ____.

A. 1 month
B. 15 days
C. 60 days
D. 3 months
Answer» D. 3 months
29.

Which section deals with the prohibitions of lay - offs?

A. 25m
B. 25n
C. 25f
D. 25
Answer» A. 25m
30.

What is the penalty faced by an employer if he lays - off or retrenches an employee without prior permission?

A. imprisonment for upto a month and a fine of upto 1000 rupees
B. imprisonment for upto a month or;
C. fine of upto 1000 rupees
D. all of the above
Answer» D. all of the above
31.

The penalty for closing an undertaking without prior notice is _____.

A. imprisonment for upto 6 months or;
B. fine upto 5000 rupees
C. both imprisonment and fine
D. all of the above
Answer» D. all of the above
32.

What should be the percentage of "protected workmen" of the total number of workmen employed in any establishment?

A. 1%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 15%
Answer» A. 1%
33.

The ____________ can make rules for the distribution of protected workman among various trade unions.

A. central government
B. state authority
C. appropriate government
D. conciliation officer
Answer» C. appropriate government
34.

A workmen who is a member of the executive or other office bearer of a registered trade union connected with the establishment is _________

A. badli workmen
B. conciliation officer
C. skilled labour
D. protected workmen
Answer» D. protected workmen
35.

Which of the option is a matter mentioned in the jurisdiction of labour courts?

A. withdrawal of any customary concession or privilege
B. application and interpretation of standing orders
C. illegality or otherwise of a strike or lock out
D. all of the above
Answer» D. all of the above
36.

Which of the options is a manning Is it justified? attar mentioned in the jurisdiction of labour courts?

A. the propriety or legality of an order passed by an employer under the standing orders
B. discharge or dismissal of workmen including reinstatement of, or grant of relief to, workmen wrongfully dismissed
C. all matters other than those specified in the third schedule
D. leave with wages and holidays
Answer» D. leave with wages and holidays
37.

Condition of service for change of which notice is to be given; is mention in which section of the act?

A. section 9a
B. section 7a
C. section 7
D. section 2a
Answer» A. section 9a
38.

Which of these is an unfair labour practice on part of the workmen?

A. to recruit workman during a strike which is not illegal
B. to discharge or dismiss workmen
C. indulging in coercive activities against certification of a bargaining representative
D. to indulge in acts of force or violence
Answer» C. indulging in coercive activities against certification of a bargaining representative
39.

Which of these is an unfair labour practice on part of the employer?

A. to incite or indulge in willful damage to employer property connected with the industry
B. to advise or actively support or instigate any strike deemed to be illegal
C. for a recognized union to refuse to bargain collectively in good faith with the employer
D. none of the above
Answer» D. none of the above
40.

__________ and __________ are regarded as equivalent terms referring to essentially the same kind of third – party intervention in promoting voluntary settlement of disputes.

A. mediation and conciliation
B. conciliation and arbitration
C. mediation and court of enquiry
D. none of the above
Answer» A. mediation and conciliation
41.

As per which professor the distinction between mediation and conciliation is hair - splitting?

A. prof. foxwell
B. prof. pigou
C. prof. davey
D. all of the above
Answer» C. prof. davey
42.

The mediator has been described as a confidential _________ and an industrial diplomat.

A. peace - maker
B. messenger
C. adviser
D. none of the above
Answer» C. adviser
43.

Which are the two methods on which a conciliator relies on to resolve the disputes between two parties?

A. cognition and influence
B. reasoning and persuasion
C. rationale and coaxing
D. motivation and leadership
Answer» B. reasoning and persuasion
44.

Which are the unique and essential characteristics of the conciliation process?

A. flexibility, informality and simplicity
B. blase, clumsy and decisive
C. candid, conceited and dismayed
D. fierce, intrepid and meticulous
Answer» A. flexibility, informality and simplicity
45.

__________ and ____________ are the two attributes which every conciliator should possess.

A. independence and impartiality
B. technicality and suspicion
C. persuasion and perceiving
D. conviction and arduous
Answer» A. independence and impartiality
46.

Choose the odd man out.

A. safety valve
B. adviser
C. face saver
D. friendly personality
Answer» D. friendly personality
47.

Which amongst these is a technique used by the conciliator?

A. searching for accommodation
B. being adamant
C. listening attentively
D. unbiased
Answer» C. listening attentively
48.

____________ is a process in which a dispute is submitted to an impartial outsider who makes a decision which is usually binding on both the parties.

A. arbitration
B. adjudication
C. court of enquiry
D. none of the above
Answer» A. arbitration
49.

What is the main objective of arbitration as per the Industrial Disputes Act?

A. securing an award
B. dominance
C. adjudication
D. binding of the award on the parties
Answer» C. adjudication
50.

Arbitration is a _____ process, while mediation has a ____ tinge.

A. legal and statutory
B. lawful and constitutional
C. legitimate and compromising
D. judicial and legislative
Answer» D. judicial and legislative

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