McqMate
1. |
The Trade Unions Act came into operation from ____. |
A. | 1st june, 1927 |
B. | 1st may, 1926 |
C. | 1st june, 1926 |
D. | none of the above |
Answer» A. 1st june, 1927 |
2. |
In which year's amendment of the act was the word ‘Indian― removed? |
A. | 1947 |
B. | 1960 |
C. | 1964 |
D. | 1962 |
Answer» C. 1964 |
3. |
The act came into force from ______. |
A. | 1st june, 1927 |
B. | 1st april, 1965 |
C. | 1st may, 1960 |
D. | 1st april, 1962 |
Answer» B. 1st april, 1965 |
4. |
What is the minimum number of trade union members requires in registering themselves as a union? |
A. | 7 |
B. | 10 |
C. | 5 |
D. | 15 |
Answer» A. 7 |
5. |
Which act in Industrial Relations defines the term trade union? |
A. | industrial trade resolution, 1962 |
B. | industrial policy, 1991 |
C. | the trade union and labour relations (consolidation) act, 1992 |
D. | the industrial employment act, 1946 |
Answer» C. the trade union and labour relations (consolidation) act, 1992 |
6. |
Which of the following acts do not apply to the registered trade unions? |
A. | the co-operative societies act, 1912 |
B. | the societies registration act, 1860 |
C. | the companies act, 1956 |
D. | all of the above |
Answer» B. the societies registration act, 1860 |
7. |
Which of the following is an object on which general funds could be spent as per section 15 of the act? |
A. | payment to buy goods required for the enterprise |
B. | payment of employees in the factory establishment |
C. | the payment of expenses for the administration of trade union or any member thereof |
D. | all of the above |
Answer» D. all of the above |
8. |
How many member's consent is required to change the name of the registered trade union? |
A. | 1/4th of the total members |
B. | 3/4th of the total members |
C. | half of the total members |
D. | 2/3rd of the total member |
Answer» D. 2/3rd of the total member |
9. |
How many percentage of votes should be recorded when amalgamating 2 or more registered trade unions? |
A. | 60% |
B. | 50% |
C. | 20% |
D. | 75% |
Answer» A. 60% |
10. |
How many members should sign the notice of dissolution? |
A. | 5 members and the secretary of the trade union |
B. | 10 members and the secretary of the trade union |
C. | 20 members and the secretary of the trade union |
D. | 7 members and the secretary of the trade union |
Answer» D. 7 members and the secretary of the trade union |
11. |
On what grounds can a union refuse to admit a person or expel a member? |
A. | because of goodwill |
B. | because of misconduct |
C. | because of change in job |
D. | none of the above |
Answer» B. because of misconduct |
12. |
-Industrial relations cover the following area(s) |
A. | collective bargaining |
B. | labour legislation |
C. | industrial relations training |
D. | all of the above |
Answer» D. all of the above |
13. |
-A course on Industrial relations in its MBA programme was firstly introduced by |
A. | iim indore |
B. | xlri jamshedpur |
C. | mdi gurgaon |
D. | iim bangalore |
Answer» B. xlri jamshedpur |
14. |
-Which of the following is not an approach to industrial relations? |
A. | unitary approach |
B. | pluralistic approach |
C. | marxist approach |
D. | employee’s approach |
Answer» D. employee’s approach |
15. |
-Under unitary approach, industrial relation is grounded in |
A. | mutual co-operation |
B. | individual treatment |
C. | team work and shared goals |
D. | all of the above |
Answer» D. all of the above |
16. |
-Pluralistic approach perceives ______ as legitimate representative of employee interests |
A. | trade unions |
B. | management |
C. | board of directors |
D. | none of the above |
Answer» A. trade unions |
17. |
-In Marxist approach, concerns with wage related disputes are |
A. | primary |
B. | secondary |
C. | tertiary |
D. | not considered |
Answer» B. secondary |
18. |
-For the Marxists, all strikes are |
A. | political |
B. | social |
C. | legislative |
D. | none of the above |
Answer» A. political |
19. |
-Which of the following is (are) not acceptable to Marxists? |
A. | enterprise bargaining |
B. | employee participation |
C. | co-operative work culture |
D. | all of the above |
Answer» D. all of the above |
20. |
No person employed in a public utility service shall go on strike in breach of contract within ____ of giving such a notice. |
A. | 14 days |
B. | 6 weeks |
C. | 7 days |
D. | none of the above |
Answer» B. 6 weeks |
21. |
Section ____ covers the definition of continuous service. |
A. | 25b |
B. | 25 |
C. | 25a |
D. | 26 |
Answer» A. 25b |
22. |
How many days of service will be termed as continuous service when working in a mine industry? |
A. | 190 days |
B. | 240 days |
C. | 365 days |
D. | 180 days |
Answer» A. 190 days |
23. |
A workmen who is employed in an industrial establishment in the place of another workman whose name is borne on the muster rolls of the establishment is ___ |
A. | temporary workmen |
B. | permanent workmen |
C. | badli workmen |
D. | none of the above |
Answer» C. badli workmen |
24. |
How much compensation does the workman deserve at the time of retrenchment? |
A. | equivalent to 15 days average pay |
B. | 6 months |
C. | equivalent to 30 days average pay |
D. | none of the above |
Answer» A. equivalent to 15 days average pay |
25. |
Which section deals with compensation to workmen in case of transfer of undertakings? |
A. | section 25f |
B. | section 25ff |
C. | section 25 |
D. | section 25e |
Answer» B. section 25ff |
26. |
How many days of notice period is mandatory for a workman who has been in continuous service for more than a year while retrenchment? |
A. | 1 month |
B. | 2 months |
C. | 15 days |
D. | 45 days |
Answer» A. 1 month |
27. |
How many does notice is the employer supposed to give before closing down an establishment as per section 25FFA? |
A. | 90 days |
B. | 60 days |
C. | 30 days |
D. | 120 days |
Answer» B. 60 days |
28. |
If an undertaking is closed down on account of unavoidable circumstances, the compensation to be paid to the workman under clause b of section 25F shall not exceed his average pay of ____. |
A. | 1 month |
B. | 15 days |
C. | 60 days |
D. | 3 months |
Answer» D. 3 months |
29. |
Which section deals with the prohibitions of lay - offs? |
A. | 25m |
B. | 25n |
C. | 25f |
D. | 25 |
Answer» A. 25m |
30. |
What is the penalty faced by an employer if he lays - off or retrenches an employee without prior permission? |
A. | imprisonment for upto a month and a fine of upto 1000 rupees |
B. | imprisonment for upto a month or; |
C. | fine of upto 1000 rupees |
D. | all of the above |
Answer» D. all of the above |
31. |
The penalty for closing an undertaking without prior notice is _____. |
A. | imprisonment for upto 6 months or; |
B. | fine upto 5000 rupees |
C. | both imprisonment and fine |
D. | all of the above |
Answer» D. all of the above |
32. |
What should be the percentage of "protected workmen" of the total number of workmen employed in any establishment? |
A. | 1% |
B. | 5% |
C. | 10% |
D. | 15% |
Answer» A. 1% |
33. |
The ____________ can make rules for the distribution of protected workman among various trade unions. |
A. | central government |
B. | state authority |
C. | appropriate government |
D. | conciliation officer |
Answer» C. appropriate government |
34. |
A workmen who is a member of the executive or other office bearer of a registered trade union connected with the establishment is _________ |
A. | badli workmen |
B. | conciliation officer |
C. | skilled labour |
D. | protected workmen |
Answer» D. protected workmen |
35. |
Which of the option is a matter mentioned in the jurisdiction of labour courts? |
A. | withdrawal of any customary concession or privilege |
B. | application and interpretation of standing orders |
C. | illegality or otherwise of a strike or lock out |
D. | all of the above |
Answer» D. all of the above |
36. |
Which of the options is a manning Is it justified? attar mentioned in the jurisdiction of labour courts? |
A. | the propriety or legality of an order passed by an employer under the standing orders |
B. | discharge or dismissal of workmen including reinstatement of, or grant of relief to, workmen wrongfully dismissed |
C. | all matters other than those specified in the third schedule |
D. | leave with wages and holidays |
Answer» D. leave with wages and holidays |
37. |
Condition of service for change of which notice is to be given; is mention in which section of the act? |
A. | section 9a |
B. | section 7a |
C. | section 7 |
D. | section 2a |
Answer» A. section 9a |
38. |
Which of these is an unfair labour practice on part of the workmen? |
A. | to recruit workman during a strike which is not illegal |
B. | to discharge or dismiss workmen |
C. | indulging in coercive activities against certification of a bargaining representative |
D. | to indulge in acts of force or violence |
Answer» C. indulging in coercive activities against certification of a bargaining representative |
39. |
Which of these is an unfair labour practice on part of the employer? |
A. | to incite or indulge in willful damage to employer property connected with the industry |
B. | to advise or actively support or instigate any strike deemed to be illegal |
C. | for a recognized union to refuse to bargain collectively in good faith with the employer |
D. | none of the above |
Answer» D. none of the above |
40. |
__________ and __________ are regarded as equivalent terms referring to essentially the same kind of third – party intervention in promoting voluntary settlement of disputes. |
A. | mediation and conciliation |
B. | conciliation and arbitration |
C. | mediation and court of enquiry |
D. | none of the above |
Answer» A. mediation and conciliation |
41. |
As per which professor the distinction between mediation and conciliation is hair - splitting? |
A. | prof. foxwell |
B. | prof. pigou |
C. | prof. davey |
D. | all of the above |
Answer» C. prof. davey |
42. |
The mediator has been described as a confidential _________ and an industrial diplomat. |
A. | peace - maker |
B. | messenger |
C. | adviser |
D. | none of the above |
Answer» C. adviser |
43. |
Which are the two methods on which a conciliator relies on to resolve the disputes between two parties? |
A. | cognition and influence |
B. | reasoning and persuasion |
C. | rationale and coaxing |
D. | motivation and leadership |
Answer» B. reasoning and persuasion |
44. |
Which are the unique and essential characteristics of the conciliation process? |
A. | flexibility, informality and simplicity |
B. | blase, clumsy and decisive |
C. | candid, conceited and dismayed |
D. | fierce, intrepid and meticulous |
Answer» A. flexibility, informality and simplicity |
45. |
__________ and ____________ are the two attributes which every conciliator should possess. |
A. | independence and impartiality |
B. | technicality and suspicion |
C. | persuasion and perceiving |
D. | conviction and arduous |
Answer» A. independence and impartiality |
46. |
Choose the odd man out. |
A. | safety valve |
B. | adviser |
C. | face saver |
D. | friendly personality |
Answer» D. friendly personality |
47. |
Which amongst these is a technique used by the conciliator? |
A. | searching for accommodation |
B. | being adamant |
C. | listening attentively |
D. | unbiased |
Answer» C. listening attentively |
48. |
____________ is a process in which a dispute is submitted to an impartial outsider who makes a decision which is usually binding on both the parties. |
A. | arbitration |
B. | adjudication |
C. | court of enquiry |
D. | none of the above |
Answer» A. arbitration |
49. |
What is the main objective of arbitration as per the Industrial Disputes Act? |
A. | securing an award |
B. | dominance |
C. | adjudication |
D. | binding of the award on the parties |
Answer» C. adjudication |
50. |
Arbitration is a _____ process, while mediation has a ____ tinge. |
A. | legal and statutory |
B. | lawful and constitutional |
C. | legitimate and compromising |
D. | judicial and legislative |
Answer» D. judicial and legislative |
51. |
Which are the two traits on which the award of an arbitrator rests on? |
A. | compromise and liberty |
B. | fair play and impartiality |
C. | equity and justice |
D. | all of the above |
Answer» C. equity and justice |
52. |
The decision of the arbitrator should be based on which approach? |
A. | quasi - judicial |
B. | split the difference |
C. | judicial |
D. | non – judicial |
Answer» B. split the difference |
53. |
The procedure is relatively _____ when compared to that in ordinary courts or labour tribunals. |
A. | expeditious |
B. | compromising |
C. | binding |
D. | delayed |
Answer» A. expeditious |
54. |
What is the main drawback of compulsory arbitration? |
A. | compulsory implication of award |
B. | non - compromising |
C. | it deprives both the parties of their very important and fundamental rights |
D. | none of the above |
Answer» C. it deprives both the parties of their very important and fundamental rights |
55. |
Which of these is a condition for which compulsory arbitration is imposed on the disputing parties? |
A. | when an industrial dispute is apprehended |
B. | disputing parties fail to arrive at a settlement by a voluntary method |
C. | the issue of the dispute should be mentioned in the arbitration agreement |
D. | all of the above |
Answer» B. disputing parties fail to arrive at a settlement by a voluntary method |
56. |
Which of the following is a quality which should be present in a successful arbitrator? |
A. | high integrity |
B. | knowledge of collective bargaining |
C. | understanding of complexities of labour – management relationship |
D. | all of the above |
Answer» B. knowledge of collective bargaining |
57. |
Which are the departments from where a qualified arbitrator be hired? |
A. | legal profession |
B. | government servants |
C. | psychologists |
D. | all of the above |
Answer» D. all of the above |
58. |
With the advocacy of __________ voluntary arbitration came into prominence for resolving industrial disputes. |
A. | bombay industrial disputes act |
B. | mahatma gandhi |
C. | v. v. giri |
D. | none of the above |
Answer» B. mahatma gandhi |
59. |
__________ reiterated the faith of the parties in voluntary arbitration. |
A. | the code of discipline (1958) |
B. | indian labour conference (1962) |
C. | ilo |
D. | industrial disputes act |
Answer» A. the code of discipline (1958) |
60. |
The need for a wide acceptance of voluntary arbitration was reiterated by _____. |
A. | national tribunal |
B. | court of enquiry |
C. | indian labour conference (1962) |
D. | ilo |
Answer» C. indian labour conference (1962) |
61. |
The importance of adjudication has been emphasised by the ________. |
A. | government |
B. | civil court |
C. | supreme court |
D. | none of the above |
Answer» C. supreme court |
62. |
The adjudication machinery has to consider not only the demands of _______ justice but also the claims of national economy. |
A. | economic |
B. | social |
C. | freedom of contract |
D. | none of the above |
Answer» B. social |
63. |
__________ involves intervention in the dispute by a third party appointed by the government for the purpose of deciding the nature of final settlement. |
A. | adjudication |
B. | national tribunal |
C. | arbitration |
D. | none of the above |
Answer» A. adjudication |
64. |
Who is the deciding authority to put the resolving matter into adjudication? |
A. | disputing parties |
B. | conciliator |
C. | trade union |
D. | government |
Answer» D. government |
65. |
Which is the ultimate legal remedy for the settlement of an unresolved dispute? |
A. | court of enquiry |
B. | adjudication |
C. | arbitration |
D. | national tribunal |
Answer» B. adjudication |
66. |
__________ has criticised compulsory arbitration on four main grounds. |
A. | alexander frey |
B. | v.v. giri |
C. | mahatma gandhi |
D. | american labour movement |
Answer» A. alexander frey |
67. |
A labour court shall consist of one person who has been a District Judge for a period of not less than ___ years. |
A. | 3 years |
B. | 7 years |
C. | 5 years |
D. | 10 years |
Answer» A. 3 years |
68. |
How many central government industrial tribunals cum labour courts in India? |
A. | 10 |
B. | 9 |
C. | 15 |
D. | 12 |
Answer» D. 12 |
69. |
In which year did factories act come into force? |
A. | 23rd september, 1948 |
B. | 1st april, 1949 |
C. | 4th april, 1949 |
D. | 12th september, 1948 |
Answer» B. 1st april, 1949 |
70. |
How many days in advance does the occupier of a factory premises gives notice of occupancy to the chief inspector? |
A. | 15 days |
B. | 20 days |
C. | 10 days |
D. | 25 days |
Answer» A. 15 days |
71. |
As per the factories act, after how many years should the factory premises be painted and refurbished? |
A. | 5 years |
B. | 2 years |
C. | 10 years |
D. | annually |
Answer» A. 5 years |
72. |
As per section 2 in factories act, who will be called as an adult? |
A. | a person who has completed 21 years of age |
B. | a person who is less than 19 years of age |
C. | a person who has completed 24 years of age |
D. | a person who has completed 18 years of age |
Answer» D. a person who has completed 18 years of age |
73. |
Section 2(g) under the act defines _______ |
A. | factory |
B. | manufacturing process |
C. | worker |
D. | occupants |
Answer» B. manufacturing process |
74. |
Maintenance of buildings ------------------- c.) Section 6 4. Protection of eyes ------------------------- d.) Section 40A |
A. | ) 1 - c, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - b |
B. | ) 1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - c |
C. | ) 1 - c, 2 - d, 3 - a, 4 - b |
D. | ) 1 - a, 2 - c, 3 - d, 4 - b |
Answer» A. ) 1 - c, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - b |
75. |
If there are ____ numbers of employees, then the employer has to provide a canteen. |
A. | 250 |
B. | 510 |
C. | 320 |
D. | 100 |
Answer» A. 250 |
76. |
Which of the following diseases is not mentioned in the section 89 of factories act? |
A. | anthrax |
B. | asbestosis |
C. | phosphorus |
D. | pneumonia |
Answer» D. pneumonia |
77. |
If a company has _____ number of employees, then the appointment of a safety officer is mandatory under the factories act. |
A. | 500 |
B. | 100 |
C. | 1000 |
D. | 10000 |
Answer» C. 1000 |
78. |
Fitness certificate granted under "sub section 2" of the act is valid for how many months? |
A. | 10 months |
B. | 24 months |
C. | 6 months |
D. | 12 months |
Answer» D. 12 months |
79. |
From the below mentioned options, which of the following is not mentioned under the welfare provision in the factories act? |
A. | canteen |
B. | creches |
C. | drinking water |
D. | first aid |
Answer» C. drinking water |
80. |
Which section of the act covers the topic annual leave with wages? |
A. | section 27 |
B. | section 5 |
C. | section 86 |
D. | section 79 |
Answer» D. section 79 |
81. |
How many hours in a week can an adult work as per factories act? |
A. | 9 hours |
B. | 56 hours |
C. | 34 hours |
D. | 48 hours |
Answer» D. 48 hours |
82. |
If there are 100 workers in a factory, then one seat is allotted to how many workers |
A. | 25 |
B. | 50 |
C. | 100 |
D. | 75 |
Answer» A. 25 |
83. |
Section 99 of factories act deals with which of the following options? |
A. | appeal |
B. | penalty for permitting double employment of a child |
C. | display of notice |
D. | penalty for obstructing inspectors |
Answer» B. penalty for permitting double employment of a child |
84. |
Choose the correct option that states the type of leave facilities for a worker mentioned in the factories act? |
A. | maternity leave |
B. | casual leave |
C. | annual leave with wages as per factories act |
D. | national & festival holidays |
Answer» C. annual leave with wages as per factories act |
85. |
What is the maximum amount of fees to be paid for licensing process? |
A. | 5 years |
B. | 1 year |
C. | 3 years |
D. | 7 years |
Answer» A. 5 years |
86. |
Which section of the factories act covers the list of diseases given in the schedule? |
A. | section 3 |
B. | section 25 |
C. | section 87 |
D. | section 89 |
Answer» D. section 89 |
87. |
Under section 106, a complaint must be filed within ____ months of the date when the commission of the offence came to the knowledge of an inspector. |
A. | 6 months |
B. | 3 months |
C. | 1 months |
D. | 12 months |
Answer» B. 3 months |
88. |
Section 76 empowers the state government to make rules for _____ |
A. | the period of work for all children employed |
B. | fitness certificate to work in a factory |
C. | canteen facilities |
D. | prescribing physical standards to be attained by the young persons for working in factories |
Answer» D. prescribing physical standards to be attained by the young persons for working in factories |
89. |
Which of the below mentioned provisions come under safety provisions? |
A. | lighting |
B. | crèche |
C. | self – acting machinery |
D. | ventilation and temperature |
Answer» C. self – acting machinery |
90. |
In cubic meters how much space is allotted to each worker after the commencement of factories act? |
A. | 9.5 |
B. | 10 |
C. | 14.2 |
D. | 12.4 |
Answer» C. 14.2 |
91. |
In which year was the first suggestion for the legislation in the act made? |
A. | 1934 |
B. | 1925 |
C. | 1936 |
D. | 1937 |
Answer» B. 1925 |
92. |
The first suggestion for legislation in the act was made by a private member's bill called __________. |
A. | legislative bill |
B. | wages bill |
C. | weekly payment bill |
D. | none of the above |
Answer» C. weekly payment bill |
93. |
Choose the correct date and year on which payment of wages act was passed? |
A. | 23rd april, 1936 |
B. | 28th march, 1937 |
C. | 25th april, 1937 |
D. | 27th april, 1936 |
Answer» A. 23rd april, 1936 |
94. |
In which year did the payment of wages act come into force? |
A. | 23rd april, 1925 |
B. | 28th march, 1940 |
C. | 23rd april, 1936 |
D. | 28th march, 1937 |
Answer» D. 28th march, 1937 |
95. |
What is the maximum wage period for the payment of wages? |
A. | 1 month |
B. | 40 days |
C. | 45 days |
D. | 60 days |
Answer» A. 1 month |
96. |
In any factory or industrial establishment where less than 1000 employees are employed the wages shall be paid before the expiry of the ____ day. |
A. | 10th day |
B. | 2nd day |
C. | 7th day |
D. | none of the above |
Answer» C. 7th day |
97. |
Which of these deductions under section 7 of payment of wages act is not authorised? |
A. | deduction for fines |
B. | deduction for payment of income tax |
C. | deduction for payment of insurance |
D. | deduction for payment of uniform and property |
Answer» D. deduction for payment of uniform and property |
98. |
What is the maximum limit of fine to be imposed on an employee? |
A. | should not exceed an amount equal to 5% of the wages payable |
B. | should not exceed an amount equal to 1% of the wages payable |
C. | should not exceed an amount equal to 3% of the wages payable |
D. | should not exceed an amount equal to 10% of the wages payable |
Answer» C. should not exceed an amount equal to 3% of the wages payable |
99. |
Which section of the act covers deduction for damage or loss? |
A. | section 10 |
B. | section 9 |
C. | section 12 |
D. | section 7 |
Answer» A. section 10 |
100. |
Deduction for services rendered --------- C. Section 7 4. Deductions from absence of duty --------- D. Section 11 |
A. | 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b |
B. | 1-c, 2-a, 3-b, 4-d |
C. | 1-b, 2-d, 3-c, 4-a |
D. | 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c |
Answer» A. 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b |
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