McqMate
| 1. |
The Trade Unions Act came into operation from ____. |
| A. | 1st june, 1927 |
| B. | 1st may, 1926 |
| C. | 1st june, 1926 |
| D. | none of the above |
| Answer» A. 1st june, 1927 | |
| 2. |
In which year's amendment of the act was the word ‘Indian― removed? |
| A. | 1947 |
| B. | 1960 |
| C. | 1964 |
| D. | 1962 |
| Answer» C. 1964 | |
| 3. |
The act came into force from ______. |
| A. | 1st june, 1927 |
| B. | 1st april, 1965 |
| C. | 1st may, 1960 |
| D. | 1st april, 1962 |
| Answer» B. 1st april, 1965 | |
| 4. |
What is the minimum number of trade union members requires in registering themselves as a union? |
| A. | 7 |
| B. | 10 |
| C. | 5 |
| D. | 15 |
| Answer» A. 7 | |
| 5. |
Which act in Industrial Relations defines the term trade union? |
| A. | industrial trade resolution, 1962 |
| B. | industrial policy, 1991 |
| C. | the trade union and labour relations (consolidation) act, 1992 |
| D. | the industrial employment act, 1946 |
| Answer» C. the trade union and labour relations (consolidation) act, 1992 | |
| 6. |
Which of the following acts do not apply to the registered trade unions? |
| A. | the co-operative societies act, 1912 |
| B. | the societies registration act, 1860 |
| C. | the companies act, 1956 |
| D. | all of the above |
| Answer» B. the societies registration act, 1860 | |
| 7. |
Which of the following is an object on which general funds could be spent as per section 15 of the act? |
| A. | payment to buy goods required for the enterprise |
| B. | payment of employees in the factory establishment |
| C. | the payment of expenses for the administration of trade union or any member thereof |
| D. | all of the above |
| Answer» D. all of the above | |
| 8. |
How many member's consent is required to change the name of the registered trade union? |
| A. | 1/4th of the total members |
| B. | 3/4th of the total members |
| C. | half of the total members |
| D. | 2/3rd of the total member |
| Answer» D. 2/3rd of the total member | |
| 9. |
How many percentage of votes should be recorded when amalgamating 2 or more registered trade unions? |
| A. | 60% |
| B. | 50% |
| C. | 20% |
| D. | 75% |
| Answer» A. 60% | |
| 10. |
How many members should sign the notice of dissolution? |
| A. | 5 members and the secretary of the trade union |
| B. | 10 members and the secretary of the trade union |
| C. | 20 members and the secretary of the trade union |
| D. | 7 members and the secretary of the trade union |
| Answer» D. 7 members and the secretary of the trade union | |
| 11. |
On what grounds can a union refuse to admit a person or expel a member? |
| A. | because of goodwill |
| B. | because of misconduct |
| C. | because of change in job |
| D. | none of the above |
| Answer» B. because of misconduct | |
| 12. |
-Industrial relations cover the following area(s) |
| A. | collective bargaining |
| B. | labour legislation |
| C. | industrial relations training |
| D. | all of the above |
| Answer» D. all of the above | |
| 13. |
-A course on Industrial relations in its MBA programme was firstly introduced by |
| A. | iim indore |
| B. | xlri jamshedpur |
| C. | mdi gurgaon |
| D. | iim bangalore |
| Answer» B. xlri jamshedpur | |
| 14. |
-Which of the following is not an approach to industrial relations? |
| A. | unitary approach |
| B. | pluralistic approach |
| C. | marxist approach |
| D. | employee’s approach |
| Answer» D. employee’s approach | |
| 15. |
-Under unitary approach, industrial relation is grounded in |
| A. | mutual co-operation |
| B. | individual treatment |
| C. | team work and shared goals |
| D. | all of the above |
| Answer» D. all of the above | |
| 16. |
-Pluralistic approach perceives ______ as legitimate representative of employee interests |
| A. | trade unions |
| B. | management |
| C. | board of directors |
| D. | none of the above |
| Answer» A. trade unions | |
| 17. |
-In Marxist approach, concerns with wage related disputes are |
| A. | primary |
| B. | secondary |
| C. | tertiary |
| D. | not considered |
| Answer» B. secondary | |
| 18. |
-For the Marxists, all strikes are |
| A. | political |
| B. | social |
| C. | legislative |
| D. | none of the above |
| Answer» A. political | |
| 19. |
-Which of the following is (are) not acceptable to Marxists? |
| A. | enterprise bargaining |
| B. | employee participation |
| C. | co-operative work culture |
| D. | all of the above |
| Answer» D. all of the above | |
| 20. |
No person employed in a public utility service shall go on strike in breach of contract within ____ of giving such a notice. |
| A. | 14 days |
| B. | 6 weeks |
| C. | 7 days |
| D. | none of the above |
| Answer» B. 6 weeks | |
| 21. |
Section ____ covers the definition of continuous service. |
| A. | 25b |
| B. | 25 |
| C. | 25a |
| D. | 26 |
| Answer» A. 25b | |
| 22. |
How many days of service will be termed as continuous service when working in a mine industry? |
| A. | 190 days |
| B. | 240 days |
| C. | 365 days |
| D. | 180 days |
| Answer» A. 190 days | |
| 23. |
A workmen who is employed in an industrial establishment in the place of another workman whose name is borne on the muster rolls of the establishment is ___ |
| A. | temporary workmen |
| B. | permanent workmen |
| C. | badli workmen |
| D. | none of the above |
| Answer» C. badli workmen | |
| 24. |
How much compensation does the workman deserve at the time of retrenchment? |
| A. | equivalent to 15 days average pay |
| B. | 6 months |
| C. | equivalent to 30 days average pay |
| D. | none of the above |
| Answer» A. equivalent to 15 days average pay | |
| 25. |
Which section deals with compensation to workmen in case of transfer of undertakings? |
| A. | section 25f |
| B. | section 25ff |
| C. | section 25 |
| D. | section 25e |
| Answer» B. section 25ff | |
| 26. |
How many days of notice period is mandatory for a workman who has been in continuous service for more than a year while retrenchment? |
| A. | 1 month |
| B. | 2 months |
| C. | 15 days |
| D. | 45 days |
| Answer» A. 1 month | |
| 27. |
How many does notice is the employer supposed to give before closing down an establishment as per section 25FFA? |
| A. | 90 days |
| B. | 60 days |
| C. | 30 days |
| D. | 120 days |
| Answer» B. 60 days | |
| 28. |
If an undertaking is closed down on account of unavoidable circumstances, the compensation to be paid to the workman under clause b of section 25F shall not exceed his average pay of ____. |
| A. | 1 month |
| B. | 15 days |
| C. | 60 days |
| D. | 3 months |
| Answer» D. 3 months | |
| 29. |
Which section deals with the prohibitions of lay - offs? |
| A. | 25m |
| B. | 25n |
| C. | 25f |
| D. | 25 |
| Answer» A. 25m | |
| 30. |
What is the penalty faced by an employer if he lays - off or retrenches an employee without prior permission? |
| A. | imprisonment for upto a month and a fine of upto 1000 rupees |
| B. | imprisonment for upto a month or; |
| C. | fine of upto 1000 rupees |
| D. | all of the above |
| Answer» D. all of the above | |
| 31. |
The penalty for closing an undertaking without prior notice is _____. |
| A. | imprisonment for upto 6 months or; |
| B. | fine upto 5000 rupees |
| C. | both imprisonment and fine |
| D. | all of the above |
| Answer» D. all of the above | |
| 32. |
What should be the percentage of "protected workmen" of the total number of workmen employed in any establishment? |
| A. | 1% |
| B. | 5% |
| C. | 10% |
| D. | 15% |
| Answer» A. 1% | |
| 33. |
The ____________ can make rules for the distribution of protected workman among various trade unions. |
| A. | central government |
| B. | state authority |
| C. | appropriate government |
| D. | conciliation officer |
| Answer» C. appropriate government | |
| 34. |
A workmen who is a member of the executive or other office bearer of a registered trade union connected with the establishment is _________ |
| A. | badli workmen |
| B. | conciliation officer |
| C. | skilled labour |
| D. | protected workmen |
| Answer» D. protected workmen | |
| 35. |
Which of the option is a matter mentioned in the jurisdiction of labour courts? |
| A. | withdrawal of any customary concession or privilege |
| B. | application and interpretation of standing orders |
| C. | illegality or otherwise of a strike or lock out |
| D. | all of the above |
| Answer» D. all of the above | |
| 36. |
Which of the options is a manning Is it justified? attar mentioned in the jurisdiction of labour courts? |
| A. | the propriety or legality of an order passed by an employer under the standing orders |
| B. | discharge or dismissal of workmen including reinstatement of, or grant of relief to, workmen wrongfully dismissed |
| C. | all matters other than those specified in the third schedule |
| D. | leave with wages and holidays |
| Answer» D. leave with wages and holidays | |
| 37. |
Condition of service for change of which notice is to be given; is mention in which section of the act? |
| A. | section 9a |
| B. | section 7a |
| C. | section 7 |
| D. | section 2a |
| Answer» A. section 9a | |
| 38. |
Which of these is an unfair labour practice on part of the workmen? |
| A. | to recruit workman during a strike which is not illegal |
| B. | to discharge or dismiss workmen |
| C. | indulging in coercive activities against certification of a bargaining representative |
| D. | to indulge in acts of force or violence |
| Answer» C. indulging in coercive activities against certification of a bargaining representative | |
| 39. |
Which of these is an unfair labour practice on part of the employer? |
| A. | to incite or indulge in willful damage to employer property connected with the industry |
| B. | to advise or actively support or instigate any strike deemed to be illegal |
| C. | for a recognized union to refuse to bargain collectively in good faith with the employer |
| D. | none of the above |
| Answer» D. none of the above | |
| 40. |
__________ and __________ are regarded as equivalent terms referring to essentially the same kind of third – party intervention in promoting voluntary settlement of disputes. |
| A. | mediation and conciliation |
| B. | conciliation and arbitration |
| C. | mediation and court of enquiry |
| D. | none of the above |
| Answer» A. mediation and conciliation | |
| 41. |
As per which professor the distinction between mediation and conciliation is hair - splitting? |
| A. | prof. foxwell |
| B. | prof. pigou |
| C. | prof. davey |
| D. | all of the above |
| Answer» C. prof. davey | |
| 42. |
The mediator has been described as a confidential _________ and an industrial diplomat. |
| A. | peace - maker |
| B. | messenger |
| C. | adviser |
| D. | none of the above |
| Answer» C. adviser | |
| 43. |
Which are the two methods on which a conciliator relies on to resolve the disputes between two parties? |
| A. | cognition and influence |
| B. | reasoning and persuasion |
| C. | rationale and coaxing |
| D. | motivation and leadership |
| Answer» B. reasoning and persuasion | |
| 44. |
Which are the unique and essential characteristics of the conciliation process? |
| A. | flexibility, informality and simplicity |
| B. | blase, clumsy and decisive |
| C. | candid, conceited and dismayed |
| D. | fierce, intrepid and meticulous |
| Answer» A. flexibility, informality and simplicity | |
| 45. |
__________ and ____________ are the two attributes which every conciliator should possess. |
| A. | independence and impartiality |
| B. | technicality and suspicion |
| C. | persuasion and perceiving |
| D. | conviction and arduous |
| Answer» A. independence and impartiality | |
| 46. |
Choose the odd man out. |
| A. | safety valve |
| B. | adviser |
| C. | face saver |
| D. | friendly personality |
| Answer» D. friendly personality | |
| 47. |
Which amongst these is a technique used by the conciliator? |
| A. | searching for accommodation |
| B. | being adamant |
| C. | listening attentively |
| D. | unbiased |
| Answer» C. listening attentively | |
| 48. |
____________ is a process in which a dispute is submitted to an impartial outsider who makes a decision which is usually binding on both the parties. |
| A. | arbitration |
| B. | adjudication |
| C. | court of enquiry |
| D. | none of the above |
| Answer» A. arbitration | |
| 49. |
What is the main objective of arbitration as per the Industrial Disputes Act? |
| A. | securing an award |
| B. | dominance |
| C. | adjudication |
| D. | binding of the award on the parties |
| Answer» C. adjudication | |
| 50. |
Arbitration is a _____ process, while mediation has a ____ tinge. |
| A. | legal and statutory |
| B. | lawful and constitutional |
| C. | legitimate and compromising |
| D. | judicial and legislative |
| Answer» D. judicial and legislative | |
| 51. |
Which are the two traits on which the award of an arbitrator rests on? |
| A. | compromise and liberty |
| B. | fair play and impartiality |
| C. | equity and justice |
| D. | all of the above |
| Answer» C. equity and justice | |
| 52. |
The decision of the arbitrator should be based on which approach? |
| A. | quasi - judicial |
| B. | split the difference |
| C. | judicial |
| D. | non – judicial |
| Answer» B. split the difference | |
| 53. |
The procedure is relatively _____ when compared to that in ordinary courts or labour tribunals. |
| A. | expeditious |
| B. | compromising |
| C. | binding |
| D. | delayed |
| Answer» A. expeditious | |
| 54. |
What is the main drawback of compulsory arbitration? |
| A. | compulsory implication of award |
| B. | non - compromising |
| C. | it deprives both the parties of their very important and fundamental rights |
| D. | none of the above |
| Answer» C. it deprives both the parties of their very important and fundamental rights | |
| 55. |
Which of these is a condition for which compulsory arbitration is imposed on the disputing parties? |
| A. | when an industrial dispute is apprehended |
| B. | disputing parties fail to arrive at a settlement by a voluntary method |
| C. | the issue of the dispute should be mentioned in the arbitration agreement |
| D. | all of the above |
| Answer» B. disputing parties fail to arrive at a settlement by a voluntary method | |
| 56. |
Which of the following is a quality which should be present in a successful arbitrator? |
| A. | high integrity |
| B. | knowledge of collective bargaining |
| C. | understanding of complexities of labour – management relationship |
| D. | all of the above |
| Answer» B. knowledge of collective bargaining | |
| 57. |
Which are the departments from where a qualified arbitrator be hired? |
| A. | legal profession |
| B. | government servants |
| C. | psychologists |
| D. | all of the above |
| Answer» D. all of the above | |
| 58. |
With the advocacy of __________ voluntary arbitration came into prominence for resolving industrial disputes. |
| A. | bombay industrial disputes act |
| B. | mahatma gandhi |
| C. | v. v. giri |
| D. | none of the above |
| Answer» B. mahatma gandhi | |
| 59. |
__________ reiterated the faith of the parties in voluntary arbitration. |
| A. | the code of discipline (1958) |
| B. | indian labour conference (1962) |
| C. | ilo |
| D. | industrial disputes act |
| Answer» A. the code of discipline (1958) | |
| 60. |
The need for a wide acceptance of voluntary arbitration was reiterated by _____. |
| A. | national tribunal |
| B. | court of enquiry |
| C. | indian labour conference (1962) |
| D. | ilo |
| Answer» C. indian labour conference (1962) | |
| 61. |
The importance of adjudication has been emphasised by the ________. |
| A. | government |
| B. | civil court |
| C. | supreme court |
| D. | none of the above |
| Answer» C. supreme court | |
| 62. |
The adjudication machinery has to consider not only the demands of _______ justice but also the claims of national economy. |
| A. | economic |
| B. | social |
| C. | freedom of contract |
| D. | none of the above |
| Answer» B. social | |
| 63. |
__________ involves intervention in the dispute by a third party appointed by the government for the purpose of deciding the nature of final settlement. |
| A. | adjudication |
| B. | national tribunal |
| C. | arbitration |
| D. | none of the above |
| Answer» A. adjudication | |
| 64. |
Who is the deciding authority to put the resolving matter into adjudication? |
| A. | disputing parties |
| B. | conciliator |
| C. | trade union |
| D. | government |
| Answer» D. government | |
| 65. |
Which is the ultimate legal remedy for the settlement of an unresolved dispute? |
| A. | court of enquiry |
| B. | adjudication |
| C. | arbitration |
| D. | national tribunal |
| Answer» B. adjudication | |
| 66. |
__________ has criticised compulsory arbitration on four main grounds. |
| A. | alexander frey |
| B. | v.v. giri |
| C. | mahatma gandhi |
| D. | american labour movement |
| Answer» A. alexander frey | |
| 67. |
A labour court shall consist of one person who has been a District Judge for a period of not less than ___ years. |
| A. | 3 years |
| B. | 7 years |
| C. | 5 years |
| D. | 10 years |
| Answer» A. 3 years | |
| 68. |
How many central government industrial tribunals cum labour courts in India? |
| A. | 10 |
| B. | 9 |
| C. | 15 |
| D. | 12 |
| Answer» D. 12 | |
| 69. |
In which year did factories act come into force? |
| A. | 23rd september, 1948 |
| B. | 1st april, 1949 |
| C. | 4th april, 1949 |
| D. | 12th september, 1948 |
| Answer» B. 1st april, 1949 | |
| 70. |
How many days in advance does the occupier of a factory premises gives notice of occupancy to the chief inspector? |
| A. | 15 days |
| B. | 20 days |
| C. | 10 days |
| D. | 25 days |
| Answer» A. 15 days | |
| 71. |
As per the factories act, after how many years should the factory premises be painted and refurbished? |
| A. | 5 years |
| B. | 2 years |
| C. | 10 years |
| D. | annually |
| Answer» A. 5 years | |
| 72. |
As per section 2 in factories act, who will be called as an adult? |
| A. | a person who has completed 21 years of age |
| B. | a person who is less than 19 years of age |
| C. | a person who has completed 24 years of age |
| D. | a person who has completed 18 years of age |
| Answer» D. a person who has completed 18 years of age | |
| 73. |
Section 2(g) under the act defines _______ |
| A. | factory |
| B. | manufacturing process |
| C. | worker |
| D. | occupants |
| Answer» B. manufacturing process | |
| 74. |
Maintenance of buildings ------------------- c.) Section 6 4. Protection of eyes ------------------------- d.) Section 40A |
| A. | ) 1 - c, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - b |
| B. | ) 1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - c |
| C. | ) 1 - c, 2 - d, 3 - a, 4 - b |
| D. | ) 1 - a, 2 - c, 3 - d, 4 - b |
| Answer» A. ) 1 - c, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - b | |
| 75. |
If there are ____ numbers of employees, then the employer has to provide a canteen. |
| A. | 250 |
| B. | 510 |
| C. | 320 |
| D. | 100 |
| Answer» A. 250 | |
| 76. |
Which of the following diseases is not mentioned in the section 89 of factories act? |
| A. | anthrax |
| B. | asbestosis |
| C. | phosphorus |
| D. | pneumonia |
| Answer» D. pneumonia | |
| 77. |
If a company has _____ number of employees, then the appointment of a safety officer is mandatory under the factories act. |
| A. | 500 |
| B. | 100 |
| C. | 1000 |
| D. | 10000 |
| Answer» C. 1000 | |
| 78. |
Fitness certificate granted under "sub section 2" of the act is valid for how many months? |
| A. | 10 months |
| B. | 24 months |
| C. | 6 months |
| D. | 12 months |
| Answer» D. 12 months | |
| 79. |
From the below mentioned options, which of the following is not mentioned under the welfare provision in the factories act? |
| A. | canteen |
| B. | creches |
| C. | drinking water |
| D. | first aid |
| Answer» C. drinking water | |
| 80. |
Which section of the act covers the topic annual leave with wages? |
| A. | section 27 |
| B. | section 5 |
| C. | section 86 |
| D. | section 79 |
| Answer» D. section 79 | |
| 81. |
How many hours in a week can an adult work as per factories act? |
| A. | 9 hours |
| B. | 56 hours |
| C. | 34 hours |
| D. | 48 hours |
| Answer» D. 48 hours | |
| 82. |
If there are 100 workers in a factory, then one seat is allotted to how many workers |
| A. | 25 |
| B. | 50 |
| C. | 100 |
| D. | 75 |
| Answer» A. 25 | |
| 83. |
Section 99 of factories act deals with which of the following options? |
| A. | appeal |
| B. | penalty for permitting double employment of a child |
| C. | display of notice |
| D. | penalty for obstructing inspectors |
| Answer» B. penalty for permitting double employment of a child | |
| 84. |
Choose the correct option that states the type of leave facilities for a worker mentioned in the factories act? |
| A. | maternity leave |
| B. | casual leave |
| C. | annual leave with wages as per factories act |
| D. | national & festival holidays |
| Answer» C. annual leave with wages as per factories act | |
| 85. |
What is the maximum amount of fees to be paid for licensing process? |
| A. | 5 years |
| B. | 1 year |
| C. | 3 years |
| D. | 7 years |
| Answer» A. 5 years | |
| 86. |
Which section of the factories act covers the list of diseases given in the schedule? |
| A. | section 3 |
| B. | section 25 |
| C. | section 87 |
| D. | section 89 |
| Answer» D. section 89 | |
| 87. |
Under section 106, a complaint must be filed within ____ months of the date when the commission of the offence came to the knowledge of an inspector. |
| A. | 6 months |
| B. | 3 months |
| C. | 1 months |
| D. | 12 months |
| Answer» B. 3 months | |
| 88. |
Section 76 empowers the state government to make rules for _____ |
| A. | the period of work for all children employed |
| B. | fitness certificate to work in a factory |
| C. | canteen facilities |
| D. | prescribing physical standards to be attained by the young persons for working in factories |
| Answer» D. prescribing physical standards to be attained by the young persons for working in factories | |
| 89. |
Which of the below mentioned provisions come under safety provisions? |
| A. | lighting |
| B. | crèche |
| C. | self – acting machinery |
| D. | ventilation and temperature |
| Answer» C. self – acting machinery | |
| 90. |
In cubic meters how much space is allotted to each worker after the commencement of factories act? |
| A. | 9.5 |
| B. | 10 |
| C. | 14.2 |
| D. | 12.4 |
| Answer» C. 14.2 | |
| 91. |
In which year was the first suggestion for the legislation in the act made? |
| A. | 1934 |
| B. | 1925 |
| C. | 1936 |
| D. | 1937 |
| Answer» B. 1925 | |
| 92. |
The first suggestion for legislation in the act was made by a private member's bill called __________. |
| A. | legislative bill |
| B. | wages bill |
| C. | weekly payment bill |
| D. | none of the above |
| Answer» C. weekly payment bill | |
| 93. |
Choose the correct date and year on which payment of wages act was passed? |
| A. | 23rd april, 1936 |
| B. | 28th march, 1937 |
| C. | 25th april, 1937 |
| D. | 27th april, 1936 |
| Answer» A. 23rd april, 1936 | |
| 94. |
In which year did the payment of wages act come into force? |
| A. | 23rd april, 1925 |
| B. | 28th march, 1940 |
| C. | 23rd april, 1936 |
| D. | 28th march, 1937 |
| Answer» D. 28th march, 1937 | |
| 95. |
What is the maximum wage period for the payment of wages? |
| A. | 1 month |
| B. | 40 days |
| C. | 45 days |
| D. | 60 days |
| Answer» A. 1 month | |
| 96. |
In any factory or industrial establishment where less than 1000 employees are employed the wages shall be paid before the expiry of the ____ day. |
| A. | 10th day |
| B. | 2nd day |
| C. | 7th day |
| D. | none of the above |
| Answer» C. 7th day | |
| 97. |
Which of these deductions under section 7 of payment of wages act is not authorised? |
| A. | deduction for fines |
| B. | deduction for payment of income tax |
| C. | deduction for payment of insurance |
| D. | deduction for payment of uniform and property |
| Answer» D. deduction for payment of uniform and property | |
| 98. |
What is the maximum limit of fine to be imposed on an employee? |
| A. | should not exceed an amount equal to 5% of the wages payable |
| B. | should not exceed an amount equal to 1% of the wages payable |
| C. | should not exceed an amount equal to 3% of the wages payable |
| D. | should not exceed an amount equal to 10% of the wages payable |
| Answer» C. should not exceed an amount equal to 3% of the wages payable | |
| 99. |
Which section of the act covers deduction for damage or loss? |
| A. | section 10 |
| B. | section 9 |
| C. | section 12 |
| D. | section 7 |
| Answer» A. section 10 | |
| 100. |
Deduction for services rendered --------- C. Section 7 4. Deductions from absence of duty --------- D. Section 11 |
| A. | 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b |
| B. | 1-c, 2-a, 3-b, 4-d |
| C. | 1-b, 2-d, 3-c, 4-a |
| D. | 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c |
| Answer» A. 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b | |
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