1760+ Indian Polity and Constitution Solved MCQs

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Chapter: Citizenship, Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties and Directive Principles of State Policy
901.

To acquire citizenship by registration a person must have been resident in India for ______ immediately before making an application:

A. six months
B. one year
C. three years
D. five years
Answer» D. five years
discuss
902.

Which of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as 'The Heart and Soul of the Constitution' ?

A. Right of Freedom of Religion
B. Right to Property
C. Right to Equality
D. Right to Constitutional Remedies
Answer» D. Right to Constitutional Remedies
discuss
903.

Which of the following Fundamental Rights is also available to a foreigner on the soil of India?

A. Equality of opportunity in the matter of public employment
B. Freedoms of movement, residence and profession
C. Protection from discrimination on grounds only of religion, race, caste or sex
D. Protection of life and personal liberty against action without authority of law
Answer» D. Protection of life and personal liberty against action without authority of law
discuss
904.

With reference to the Constitution of India, which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? Subject List

A. Stock Exchange State List
B. Forest Concurrent List
C. Insurance Union List
D. Marriage and Divorce Concurrent List
Answer» A. Stock Exchange State List
discuss
905.

On whom does the Constitution confer special responsibility for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights?

A. Parliament
B. Supreme Court
C. President
D. State legislature
Answer» B. Supreme Court
discuss
906.

According to Article 23, the following are prohibited:

A. traffic in human beings, beggary, slavery and bonded labour
B. monopoly of trade
C. sale of incenses
D. visit to terrorist infected areas
Answer» A. traffic in human beings, beggary, slavery and bonded labour
discuss
907.

Articles 20-22 relate to the fundamental right to life and personal liberty. These rights are available to :s

A. citizens and non-citizens
B. natural persons as well as artificial persons
C. citizen only
D. all persons who have juristic personality
Answer» A. citizens and non-citizens
discuss
908.

Which one of the following has been dropped from the list of personal freedoms enshrined in Article 19 of the Constitution?

A. Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms
B. Freedom to acquire, hold and dispose of property
C. Freedom to reside and settle in any part of the country
D. Freedom to carry on any profession, occupation; trade or business
Answer» B. Freedom to acquire, hold and dispose of property
discuss
909.

Once the proclamation of emergency is made, the right of a citizen to move to the Supreme Court for the enforcement of his fundamental right is suspended by the:

A. Prime Minister of India
B. President of India
C. Speaker of Lok Sabha
D. Chief Justice of Supreme Court
Answer» B. President of India
discuss
910.

Under Article 368, Parliament has no power to repeal Fundamental Rights because they are:

A. enshrined in Part III of the Constitution
B. human rights
C. transcendental rights
D. part of bask structure of essential framework of the Constitution
Answer» D. part of bask structure of essential framework of the Constitution
discuss
911.

Which of the following statements is/are not indicative of the difference between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles?
I. Directive Principles are aimed at promoting social welfare, while Fundamental Rights are for protecting individuals from State encroachment.
II. Fundamental Rights are limitations on State action, while Directive Principles are positive instructions for the Government to work towards a just socioeconomic order.
III. Fundamental Rights were included in the original Constitution, but Directive Principles were added by the first Amendment.
IV. Fundamental Rights are amendable, but Directive Principles cannot be amended.

A. I and II
B. II and III
C. III and IV
D. I, II and III
Answer» C. III and IV
discuss
912.

The enforcement of Directive Principles depends most on :

A. the Courts
B. an effective opposition in Parliament
C. resources available to the Government
D. public cooperation
Answer» C. resources available to the Government
discuss
913.

In the Constitution, opportunities for the development of scientific temper, humanism and spirit of inquiry and reform are found in :

A. Fundamental Rights
B. Preamble
C. Fundamental Futies
D. Directive Principles
Answer» C. Fundamental Futies
discuss
914.

The Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens were provided by :

A. an amendment of the Constiution
B. a judgement of the Supreme Court
C. an order issued by the President
D. a Legislation adopted by the Parliament
Answer» A. an amendment of the Constiution
discuss
915.

Which of the following is correct about the Fundamental Duties? I. These are not enforceable. II. They are primarily moral duties. III. They are not related to any legal rights.

A. I, II and III
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. I and II
Answer» A. I, II and III
discuss
916.

The total number of Fundamental Duties mentioned in the Constitution is :

A. 9
B. 10
C. 11
D. 12
Answer» C. 11
discuss
917.

Fundamental duties enacted in Part IV A of the Constitution are:

A. enforceable duties and Parliament can impose penalties or punishments for the noncompliance
B. like Directive Principles that : are mandates to people
C. like Fundamental Rights that are enforceable
D. no more than meant to create psychological consciousness among the citizens and of education value
Answer» D. no more than meant to create psychological consciousness among the citizens and of education value
discuss
918.

Fundamental duties have been added in the Constitution by 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 in accordance with the recommendations of:

A. Santhanam Committee
B. Sarkaria Committee
C. Swaran Singh Committee
D. Indira Gandhi Committee
Answer» C. Swaran Singh Committee
discuss
919.

Respect for the National Flag and National Anthem is:

A. Fundamental Right of every citizen
B. Fundamental Duty of every citizen
C. Directive Principle of State policy
D. ordinary duty of every citizen
Answer» B. Fundamental Duty of every citizen
discuss
920.

The Fundamental Duties: I. were introduced by the 44th Amendment. II. are incorporated in Part Ill-A. III. are not justiciable.

A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. III only
Answer» D. III only
discuss
921.

Which of the following statements is/are correct? Article 26 of the Constitution of India states that subject to public order, morality and health, every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have the right
1. to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes.
2. to manage its own affairs in matters of religion.
3. to own and acquire movable and immovable property. [CDS 2008]

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer» D. 1, 2 and 3
discuss
922.

Which of the following are among the Fundamental Duties as listed in the Constitution?
I. To preserve the heritage of our composite culture.
II. To abide by the Constitution.
III. To strive for excellence in scientific research to win international fame.
IV. To render national service when called upon to do so.

A. I, II and III
B. l and II
C. I, II and IV
D. II, III and IV
Answer» C. I, II and IV
discuss
923.

The Fundamental Duties were included in the Constitution with the idea of:

A. giving more importance to the Fundamental Rights
B. curbing subversive and unconstitutional activities
C. preventing abuse of Fundamental Rights
D. giving more power to the executive
Answer» B. curbing subversive and unconstitutional activities
discuss
924.

The Constitution describes India as a :

A. Federation of States
B. Union of States
C. Confederation of States
D. Unitary State
Answer» B. Union of States
discuss
925.

The 'Union of India' consists of: I. States II. Union Territories III. Acquired Territories

A. l only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. I, II and III
Answer» A. l only
discuss
926.

Which one of the following subjects is under the Union List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India ? [IAS 2006]

A. Regulation of labour and safety in mines and oilfields
B. Agriculture
C. Fisheries
D. Public health
Answer» A. Regulation of labour and safety in mines and oilfields
discuss
927.

Consider the following statements:
1. A person who was born on 26th January, 1951 in Rangoon, whose father was a citizen of India by birth at the time of his birth is deemed to be an Indian citizen by descent.
2. A person who was born on 1st·July, 1988 in Itanagar, whose mother is a citizen of India at the time of his birth but the father was not, is deemed to be a citizen of India by birth. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [CDS 2009]

A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
Answer» C. Both I and II
discuss
928.

Which one among the following statements regarding the constitutionally guaranteed Right to Education in India is correct? [CDS 2011]

A. This right covers both child and adult illiteracy and' therefore universally guarantees education to all citizens of India
B. This right is a child right covering the age group of 6 to 14 years and becomes operational from the year 2015
C. This right has been taken from the British Constitution which was the first Welfare State in the world
D. This right has been given to all Indian children between the ages of 6 to 14 Years under the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act
Answer» D. This right has been given to all Indian children between the ages of 6 to 14 Years under the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act
discuss
929.

Which is the competent body to prescribe conditions for acquisition of citizenship? [SSC (10+2) 2010]

A. Election Commission
B. President
C. Parliament
D. Parliament and Assemblies
Answer» C. Parliament
discuss
930.

In India the right to "freedom of speech and expression" is restricted on the grounds of
1. the sovereignty and integrity of India.
2. contempt of court.
3. friendly relation with foreign states.
4. protection of minorities.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: [CDS 2010]

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2, 3 and 4
C. 1 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 4
Answer» A. 1, 2 and 3
discuss
931.

Which among the following conditions are necessary for the issue of writ of quo warranto?
1. The office must be public and must be created by a Statute or by the Constitution itself.
2. The office must be a substantive one and not merely the function or employment of a servant at the will and during the pleasure of another
3. There has been a contravention of the constitution or a Statutory Instrument, in appointing such person to that office.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: [CDS 2012] Code:

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer» D. 1, 2 and 3
discuss
932.

Suppose a legislation was passed by the Parliament imposing certain restrictions onnewspapers. These included page ceiling, price and advertisements. The legislation is included in the Ninth Schedule to the Constitution of India. In this context, which one among the following statements is correct? [CDS 2012]

A. The legislation is invalid as it violates the freedom of Press
B. The legislation is valid by virtue of Article 31 B
C. The legislation is invalid as it imposes unreasonable restrictions under Article 19(2) of the Constitution
D. The legislation is valid as the Press is not a citizen under Articles 19 of the Constitution
Answer» C. The legislation is invalid as it imposes unreasonable restrictions under Article 19(2) of the Constitution
discuss
933.

Right to Information is [Asstt Commdt 2011]

A. fundamental right
B. legal right
C. neither fundamental right nor legal right
D. both fundamental right as well as legal Right
Answer» A. fundamental right
discuss
934.

Which of the following statements regarding the Fundamental Duties as contained in the Constitution of India is/are correct?
1. They can be enforced through writ jurisdiction.
2. They have formed a part of the Constitution since its adoption. 3. They are applicable only to citizens of India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: [Asstt Commdt 2011]

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 only
Answer» D. 3 only
discuss
935.

Which one among the following pairs is no correctly matched? [Asstt Commdt 2011]

A. Power of the Parliament : Creating a new state
B. Power of state legislature : Altering the name of the state
C. Equality before law : Guaranteed to both Indian citizens and noncitizens
D. Equality of opportunity : Guaranteed to only Indian citizens
Answer» B. Power of state legislature : Altering the name of the state
discuss
936.

Which one among the following is not guaranteed by the Constitution of India? [CDS 2011]

A. Freedom to move freely throughout the country
B. Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms
C. Freedom to own, acquire and dispose of property anywhere in the country
D. Freedom to practice any trade or profession
Answer» C. Freedom to own, acquire and dispose of property anywhere in the country
discuss
937.

Which of the following are envisaged as being part of the 'Right against Exploitation' in the Constitution of India?
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour.
2. Abolition of untouchability.
3. Protection of the interests of the minorities.
4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: [CDS 2011]

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 1 and 4
D. 2, 3 and 4
Answer» C. 1 and 4
discuss
938.

The purpose of Directive Principles of State Policy is to [CDS 2011]

A. lay down positive instructions which would guide State Policy at all levels
B. implement Gandhiji's idea for a decentralized state
C. check the use of arbitrary powers by the government
D. promote welfare of the backward sections of the society
Answer» A. lay down positive instructions which would guide State Policy at all levels
discuss
939.

In which case did the Supreme Court restore the primacy of the Fundamental Rights over the Directive Principles of State Policy? [CPO SI 2010]

A. Golaknath Case
B. Keshavananda Bharti Case
C. Minerva Mills Case
D. All the above cases
Answer» A. Golaknath Case
discuss
940.

Which of the following rights conferred by the Constitution of India is also available to non-citizens? [BPSC 2011]

A. Right to constitutional remedies
B. Freedom to speech
C. Freedom to move and settle in any part of the country
D. Freedom to acquire property
Answer» B. Freedom to speech
discuss
941.

Which one of the following is a human right as well as a fundamental right under the Constitution of India? [BPSC 2011]

A. Right to Information
B. Right to Work
C. Right to Education
D. Right to Housing
Answer» C. Right to Education
discuss
942.

Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty? [CSAT 2011]

A. To vote in public elections
B. To develop the scientific temper
C. To safeguard public property
D. To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals
Answer» A. To vote in public elections
discuss
943.

A government is federal or unitary on the basis of relations between the:

A. three organs of government
B. Centre and States
C. Legislature and the Executive
D. Constitution and the States
Answer» B. Centre and States
discuss
944.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The territory of the units of the Indian federation may be altered by Parliament by a simple majority.
2. The consent of a State Legislature is necessary before Parliament redistributes its territory.
3. The President's recommendation is necessary for introducing in Parliament a Bill on redistributing territory of any State.
4. The President must receive the State's opinion before recommending a Bill on altering the name of the State.

A. I only
B. I and II
C. I, II and IV
D. I and III
Answer» D. I and III
discuss
945.

Regarding equality before law, the Indian Constitution makes exceptions in the case of:

A. the President or a Governor
B. foreign sovereigns only
C. the President only
D. None
Answer» A. the President or a Governor
discuss
946.

Censorship of the press:

A. is prohibited by the Constitution
B. has to be judged by the test of reasonableness
C. is a restriction on the freedom of the press mentioned in Article 19
D. is specified in Article 31 of the Constitution
Answer» B. has to be judged by the test of reasonableness
discuss
947.

Freedom of speech and expression are restricted in the Constitution on grounds of I. defamation II. contempt of court III. protecting a scheduled tribe IV. friendly relations with foreign states

A. I, II and III
B. II, III and IV
C. I and IV
D. I, II and IV
Answer» D. I, II and IV
discuss
948.

The right against exploitation prohibits children:

A. below 14 years of age from employment in family businesses
B. below 14 years of age from being employed in hazardous occupations
C. below 14 years from working on family farms
D. from doing all the above
Answer» B. below 14 years of age from being employed in hazardous occupations
discuss
949.

Which of the following comes under Right to Equality? 1. Non-discrimination by State on grounds of religion or race. 2. Equal protection of the laws. 3. Equal pay for equal work. 4. Equality of opportunity in matters of employment under the State.

A. I, II and III
B. II, III and IV
C. II and IV
D. I, II and IV
Answer» D. I, II and IV
discuss
950.

Which of the following can impose reasonable restrictions on the Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens?

A. Supreme Court
B. Parliament
C. President on the advice of the Council of Ministers
D. None of these; the restrictions have already been included in the Constitution
Answer» B. Parliament
discuss
951.

The right to constitutional remedies in India is a vailable to :

A. citizens of India only
B. all persons in case of infringement of any fundamental right
C. any person for enforcing any of the fundamental rights conferred on all persons
D. an aggrieved individual alone
Answer» B. all persons in case of infringement of any fundamental right
discuss
952.

Which of the following rights are available to Indian citizens as well as foreigners residing in Indian territory ?
I. Cultural and Educational Rights.
II. Right to Freedom of religion.
III. Right against discrimination by the State on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
IV. Right to personal liberty.

A. I and II
B. III and IV
C. II and IV
D. I, II, III and IV
Answer» C. II and IV
discuss
953.

Which of the following factors do not Explain why the rights included in Part III of the Constitution are called 'fundamental' ? I. They are equally available to citizens and aliens. II. They are superior to ordinary law III. They are fundamental for governing the country. IV. They are not absolute.

A. II and IV
B. I, II and III
C. I, III and IV
D. III and IV
Answer» C. I, III and IV
discuss
954.

The Fundamental Right to ____ has been deleted by the ___ Amendment Act.

A. form associations; 44th
B. property; 44th
C. against exploitation; 42nd
D. private property; 42nd
Answer» B. property; 44th
discuss
955.

Which statement/s is/are not correct regarding the Fundamental Rights? I. Some of these rights are not available to the Armed Forces. II. They are automatically suspended when any emergency is proclaimed by the President. III. The President alone can decide upon modifying their application to the Armed Forces. IV. They cannot be amended as they form a basic feature of the Constitution

A. I and II
B. II, III and IV
C. I and IV
D. I, II, III and IV
Answer» B. II, III and IV
discuss
956.

Which Article of the Constitution of India says, 'No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment’? [IAS 2004]

A. Article 24
B. Article 45
C. Article 330
D. Article 368
Answer» A. Article 24
discuss
957.

Consider the following statements:
1. The Article 20 of the Constitution of India lays down that no person shall be deprived of his life and personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.
2. The Article 21 of the Constitution of India states that no person can be convicted for any offence except for the violation of law in force at the time of the commission of the act charged as an offence.
Which of these statements is/are correct? [CDS 2004]

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer» D. Neither 1 nor 2
discuss
958.

Separation of the Judiciary from the Executive is enjoined by :

A. Preamble
B. Directive Principle
C. Seventh Schedule
D. Judicial Decision
Answer» B. Directive Principle
discuss
959.

Which Article of the Constitution envisages free and compulsory education for children upto the age of 14 years? [Railways 1993]

A. Article 45
B. Article 19
C. Article 29
D. Article 32
Answer» A. Article 45
discuss
960.

Which part of the Constitution deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy?

A. Part III
B. Part IV
C. Part V
D. Part II
Answer» B. Part IV
discuss
961.

Which of the following is not a Directive Principle of the State Policy? [CBI 1993]

A. To raise the level of nutrition
B. To develop the scientific temper
C. To promote economic interests of weaker sections
D. To separate the Judiciary from the Executive
Answer» B. To develop the scientific temper
discuss
962.

Which of the following Directive Principles is based on Gandhian ideology?

A. Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
B. Uniform civil code for all citizens
C. Separation of Judiciary from Executive
D. Promotion of cottage industries
Answer» D. Promotion of cottage industries
discuss
963.

Which of the following cannot be termed 'Gandhian' among the Directive Principles?

A. Prevention of cow slaughter
B. Promotion of cottage industries
C. Establishment of village panchayats
D. Uniform civil code for the country
Answer» D. Uniform civil code for the country
discuss
964.

Which of the following is/are listed among the Directive Principles in Part IV? I. Equal pay for equal work. II. Uniform civil code. III. Small family norm IV. Education through mother tongue at primary level.

A. I, II and III
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I, II, III and IV
Answer» B. I and II
discuss
965.

Which of the following were added to the Directive Principles by amendments to the Constitution?
I. To protect and improve the environment and safeguard wild life.
II. Right of workers to participate in management of industries.
III. Right to work
IV. To protect and maintain places of historic interest.

A. I and III
B. II and IV
C. I, III and IV
D. I and II
Answer» D. I and II
discuss
966.

Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of theConstitution of India? [IAS 2004]

A. It contains the scheme of the distribution of power between the Union and the States
B. It contains the language listed in the Constitution
C. It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas
D. It allocates seats in the Council of States
Answer» D. It allocates seats in the Council of States
discuss
967.

The Twelfth Schedule of the Constitution:

A. contains provrsions relating to elections to Panchayats
B. contains subjects over which Municipalities may have control
C. contains recommendations relating to establishment of State Finance Commission
D. was added by the 73rd Amendment Act
Answer» B. contains subjects over which Municipalities may have control
discuss
968.

The Ninth Schedule was added by the ______ Amendment.

A. First
B. Ninth
C. Thirty-fifth
D. Thirty-sixth
Answer» A. First
discuss
969.

In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is mentioned in the: [Asstt Comm 2008]

A. Preamble to the Constitution
B. Directive Principles of State Policy
C. Fundamental Duties
D. Ninth Schedule
Answer» B. Directive Principles of State Policy
discuss
970.

Which language is not recognised in the 8th Schedule though it is an official language of a State?

A. English
B. Sindhi
C. Sanskrit
D. Kashmiri
Answer» A. English
discuss
971.

Consider the following statements:
1. There are twelve Fundamental Duties laid down in the Constitution of India for every citizen of India.
2. There is no provision in the Constitution of India for direct enforcement of the Fundamental Duties.
3. One of the Fundamental Duties of every citizen of India is to cast his/her vote in general or State elections so as to maintain a vibrant democracy in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [CDS 2005]

A. 1 and 2
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 only
Answer» B. 2 only
discuss
972.

In which one of the following does the subject of Co-operative Societies fall ? [CDS 2005]

A. Union List
B. State List
C. Concurrent List
D. Residuary Powers Government
Answer» C. Concurrent List
discuss
973.

With what subject do the Articles 5 to 8 of the Constitution of India deal? [CDS 2005]

A. Details of Indian Union and its territory
B. Citizenship
C. Fundamental Duties
D. Union Executive
Answer» B. Citizenship
discuss
Chapter: Parts and Articles of Constitution- Emergency Provisions
974.

Under which Article of the Constitution is the President's rule promulgated on any State in India? [Bank PO 1994]

A. 356
B. 352
C. 360
D. 370
Answer» A. 356
discuss
975.

A proclamation of emergency issued under Article 352 must be approved by the Parliament within:

A. 1 month
B. 6 weeks
C. 2 months
D. 3 months
Answer» A. 1 month
discuss
976.

The President's rule can be proclaimed in a State: [CDS 1994]

A. when a bill introduced by the State Government in the State Legislature is defeated
B. if the President, on receipt of report from the Governor of the State is satisfied that a situation is likely to arise in which the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution
C. if the President, on receipt of a report from the Governor of the State, or otherwise, is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution
D. when the Governor and the Chief Minister of a State differ on many matters
Answer» C. if the President, on receipt of a report from the Governor of the State, or otherwise, is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution
discuss
977.

The Governor recommends to the President of India that breakdown of Constitutional machinery in the State is imminent. The President makes a proclamation under Article 356. The action of the President:

A. cannot be reviewed as the President is the sole judge of his emergency powers
B. cannot be reviewed as the Constitution bars the courts from reviewing political actions
C. can be reviewed as it goes against Fundamental Rights
D. can be reviewed as it is malafide
Answer» D. can be reviewed as it is malafide
discuss
978.

Proclamation of emergency under Article 352, when Lok Sabha stands dissolved, has to be approved by :

A. Rajya Sabha and then will continue till the reconstitution of new Lok Sabha which must approve it within 30 days of its first sitting
B. New Lok Sabha within 6 months of its Constitution
C. Lok Sabha in next session after six months
D. Rajya Sabha only
Answer» A. Rajya Sabha and then will continue till the reconstitution of new Lok Sabha which must approve it within 30 days of its first sitting
discuss
979.

The rule of passing resolution by 2/3rd majority of total number of members of the House of Parliament is applicable in the case of:

A. amendment of the Constitution
B. approval of proclamation of emergency
C. impeachment of President
D. disapproval of proclamation of emergency
Answer» C. impeachment of President
discuss
980.

Consider the following statements in respect of financial emergency under Article 360 of the Constitution of India:
1. A proclamation of financial emergency issued shall cease to operate at the expiration of two months unless before the expiration of that period it has been approved by the resolutions of both Houses of Parliament.
2. If any proclamation of financial emergency Is in operation. it is competent for the President of India to issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons serving in connection with the affairs of the Union but excluding the Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [IAS 2007]

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer» A. 1 only
discuss
981.

After approval by' both Houses of Parliament, the proclamation of emergency issued by the President shall be valid:

A. for period of six months
B. for an indefinite period unless revoked by the subsequent proclamation
C. for an indefinite period if both Houses of Parliament approves the proclamation after every six months
D. for further period of two months only
Answer» C. for an indefinite period if both Houses of Parliament approves the proclamation after every six months
discuss
982.

Every proclamation issued under Article 356 shall cease to operate at the expiration of:

A. one month unless before that period it has been approved by resolution of both Houses of Parliament
B. two months unless before that period it has been approved by resolution of both Houses of Parliament
C. six months unless before that period it has been approved by resolution of both Houses of Parliament
D. three years unless before that period it has been approved by resolution of both Houses of Parliament
Answer» B. two months unless before that period it has been approved by resolution of both Houses of Parliament
discuss
983.

While a proclamation of emergency is in operation in the country, the State Government:

A. cannot legislate
B. can legislate only on subjects in the Concurrent List
C. can legislate on the subject in the State List
D. is suspended
Answer» A. cannot legislate
discuss
984.

While a proclamation of emergency is in operation in the country under Article 352:

A. the Parliament is empowered under Article 250 to legislate with respect to any matter in the State List
B. the power of the State Legislature to make a law which is entitled to make a law under the Constitution is suspended
C. a law passed by the Parliament may be amended by a State Legislature with prior permission of the President
D. Parliament can delegate some of its powers to the State Legislatures
Answer» A. the Parliament is empowered under Article 250 to legislate with respect to any matter in the State List
discuss
985.

Which is not a correct statement regarding financial emergency?

A. President can ask States to follow a certain canon of financial propriety
B. The States may be asked to reserve the money bills for the consideration of the President
C. President can suspend the normal allocation of revenues
D. President can reduce the salaries of civil servants and not judges
Answer» C. President can suspend the normal allocation of revenues
discuss
986.

According to Article 164(1) of the Constitution of India, in three States there shall be a Minister in charge of tribal welfare who may in addition be in charge of the welfare of the Scheduled Castes and Backward Classes. Which one of the following States is not covered by the Article? [CDS 2009]

A. Jharkhand
B. Punjab
C. Madhya Pradesh
D. Orissa
Answer» B. Punjab
discuss
987.

Which Article of Indian Constitution prescribes Hindi in Devanagari script as the official language of the Union?

A. 341
B. 342
C. 343
D. 346
Answer» C. 343
discuss
988.

Which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution guarantees equal opportunities in public employment to persons belonging to SC/ST and the other minority communities?

A. Article 15
B. Article 16
C. Article 22
D. Article 27
Answer» B. Article 16
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989.

Part V of the Constitution deals with: I. Union Executive II. Parliament III. Supreme Court and High Courts IV. Comptroller and Auditor-General

A. I and II
B. I, II and III
C. I only
D. I, II and IV
Answer» D. I, II and IV
discuss
990.

Provisions of the Constitution relating to the administration of scheduled areas and tribes in Schedule V :

A. may be altered by the Governor
B. may be altered by Parliament by amendment requiring two-thirds majority
C. cannot be altered
D. may be altered by Parliament by ordinary legislation
Answer» D. may be altered by Parliament by ordinary legislation
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991.

Provisions of having a UPSC and Public Service Commision for States are enshrined in :

A. Part XIV, Chapter II, Articles 315-324
B. Part XIV, Chapter I, Articles 308-323
C. Part XIV, Chapter II, Articles 315-323
D. Part XIV, Chapter I, Articles 308-318
Answer» B. Part XIV, Chapter I, Articles 308-323
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992.

Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India says that the executive power of every State shall be so exercised as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union? [IAS 2004]

A. Article 257
B. Article 258
C. Article 355
D. Article 356
Answer» A. Article 257
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993.

Article 340 of the Constitution of India provides for the appointment of a Commission to investigate the conditions for the improvement of: [CDS 2004]

A. Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
B. Socially and educationally backward classes
C. Socially and economically backward classes
D. Educationally and economically backward classes
Answer» A. Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
discuss
994.

National Emergency has been declared so far:

A. once
B. twice
C. thrice
D. four times
Answer» C. thrice
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995.

The provision for Contingency Fund of India as well as for each State has been made under:

A. Article 267
B. Article 270
C. Parliamentary Legislation
D. Presidential order
Answer» A. Article 267
discuss
996.

During a financial emergency, the President can:
1. ask the states to reduce the salaries arid allowances of all or any class of persons serving in connection with the affairs of the State
2. ask the states to reserve money bills passed by the state legislature for his consideration
3. issue directions to states on financial matters 4. issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of persons serving in connection with the affairs of the Union

A. I, II and III
B. I, III and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV
Answer» D. I, II, III and IV
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997.

National emergency can be declared by the President only
I. on grounds of war
II. on grounds of external aggression
III. on grounds of internal disturbance
IV. on the written recommendation of the Union Cabinet

A. I and II
B. I, II and III
C. I, II and IV
D. I, II, III and IV
Answer» D. I, II, III and IV
discuss
998.

During a proclamation of emergency due to the breakdown of constitutional machinery in a State the President can
I. assume all powers vested in and exercisable by the Governor
II. declare that the powers of the State Legislature shall be exercised by Parliament
III. assume certain powers of the High Courts
IV. suspend by order any or all Fundamental Rights except those under Articles 20 and 21

A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II, III and IV
D. II and IV
Answer» A. I and II
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999.

When a financial emergency is proclaimed: [I. Tax 1994]

A. repayment of government debts will stop
B. payment of salaries to public servants will be postponed
C. salaries and allowances of any class of employees may be reduced
D. Union Budget will not be presented
Answer» B. payment of salaries to public servants will be postponed
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1000.

On the basis of financial crisis Emergency has been declared by the President of India:

A. not even once
B. in 1962
C. in 1971
D. in 1991
Answer» A. not even once
discuss

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