McqMate
| 101. |
Incremental development in Extreme Programming (XP) is supported through a system release once every month. |
| A. | true |
| B. | false |
| Answer» B. false | |
| Explanation: incremental development is supported through small, frequent system releases. | |
| 102. |
In XP, as soon as the work on a task is complete, it is integrated into the whole system. |
| A. | true |
| B. | false |
| Answer» A. true | |
| Explanation: xp follows a continuous integration approach.after any such integration, all the unit tests in the system must pass. | |
| 103. |
In XP Increments are delivered to customers every weeks. |
| A. | one |
| B. | two |
| C. | three |
| D. | four |
| Answer» B. two | |
| Explanation: extreme programming (xp) takes an ‘extreme’ approach to iterative development.new versions may be built | |
| 104. |
Is a customer involved test development and validation in XP ? |
| A. | yes |
| B. | no |
| C. | it may vary from customer to customer |
| D. | none of the mentioned |
| Answer» C. it may vary from customer to customer | |
| Explanation: the role of the customer in the testing process is to help develop acceptance tests for the stories that are to be implemented in the next release of the system.however, people adopting the customer role have limited time available and so cannot work | |
| 105. |
Programmers prefer programming to testing and sometimes they take shortcuts when writing tests. For example, they may write incomplete tests that do not check for all possible exceptions that may occur. |
| A. | true |
| B. | false |
| Answer» A. true | |
| Explanation: in xp some tests can be very difficult to write incrementally.for example, in a complex user interface, it is often difficult to write unit tests for the code that implements the ‘display logic’ and workflow between screens. | |
| 106. |
Tests are automated in Extreme Programming. |
| A. | true |
| B. | false |
| Answer» A. true | |
| Explanation: automated test harnesses are used to run all component tests each time that a new release is built. | |
| 107. |
In XP an automated unit test framework is used to write tests for a new piece of functionality before that functionality itself is implemented. |
| A. | true |
| B. | false |
| Answer» A. true | |
| Explanation: xp follows test-first development approach. | |
| 108. |
Developers work individually on a release and they compare their results with other developers before forwarding that release to customers. |
| A. | true |
| B. | false |
| Answer» B. false | |
| Explanation: xp follows the principle of pair programming which means developers work in pairs, checking each other’s work and providing the support to always do a good job. | |
| 109. |
Which four framework activities are found in the Extreme Programming(XP) ? |
| A. | analysis, design, coding, testing |
| B. | planning, analysis, design, coding |
| C. | planning, design, coding, testing |
| D. | planning, analysis, coding, testing |
| Answer» C. planning, design, coding, testing | |
| Explanation: xp involves the mentioned four activities, and in the same in order. | |
| 110. |
Which process can be affected by other processes executing in the system? |
| A. | cooperating process |
| B. | child process |
| C. | parent process |
| D. | init process |
| Answer» A. cooperating process | |
| Explanation: none. | |
| 111. |
When several processes access the same data concurrently and the outcome of the execution depends on the particular order in which the access takes place, is called? |
| A. | dynamic condition |
| B. | race condition |
| C. | essential condition |
| D. | critical condition |
| Answer» B. race condition | |
| Explanation: none. | |
| 112. |
If a process is executing in its critical section, then no other processes can be executing in their critical section. This condition is called? |
| A. | mutual exclusion |
| B. | critical exclusion |
| C. | synchronous exclusion |
| D. | asynchronous exclusion |
| Answer» A. mutual exclusion | |
| Explanation: none. | |
| 113. |
Which one of the following is a synchronization tool? |
| A. | thread |
| B. | pipe |
| C. | semaphore |
| D. | socket |
| Answer» C. semaphore | |
| Explanation: none. | |
| 114. |
A semaphore is a shared integer variable |
| A. | that can not drop below zero |
| B. | that can not be more than zero |
| C. | that can not drop below one |
| D. | that can not be more than one |
| Answer» A. that can not drop below zero | |
| Explanation: none. | |
| 115. |
Mutual exclusion can be provided by the |
| A. | mutex locks |
| B. | binary semaphores |
| C. | both mutex locks and binary semaphores |
| D. | none of the mentioned |
| Answer» C. both mutex locks and binary semaphores | |
| Explanation: binary semaphores are known as mutex locks. | |
| 116. |
When high priority task is indirectly preempted by medium priority task effectively inverting the relative priority of the two tasks, the scenario is called |
| A. | priority inversion |
| B. | priority removal |
| C. | priority exchange |
| D. | priority modification |
| Answer» A. priority inversion | |
| Explanation: none. | |
| 117. |
Process synchronization can be done on |
| A. | hardware level |
| B. | software level |
| C. | both hardware and software level |
| D. | none of the mentioned |
| Answer» C. both hardware and software level | |
| Explanation: none. | |
| 118. |
7 INTERACTIVE PROCESSES |
| A. | shared data structures |
| B. | procedures that operate on shared data structure |
| C. | synchronization between concurrent procedure invocation |
| D. | all of the mentioned |
| Answer» D. all of the mentioned | |
| Explanation: none. | |
| 119. |
To enable a process to wait within the monitor |
| A. | a condition variable must be declared as condition |
| B. | condition variables must be used as boolean objects |
| C. | semaphore must be used |
| D. | all of the mentioned |
| Answer» A. a condition variable must be declared as condition | |
| Explanation: none. | |
| 120. |
Which of the following are parameters involved in computing the total cost of a software development project? |
| A. | hardware and software costs |
| B. | effort costs |
| C. | travel and training costs |
| D. | all of the mentioned |
| Answer» D. all of the mentioned | |
| Explanation: all these are accounted for in estimating a software development cost. | |
| 121. |
Which of the following costs is not part of the total effort cost? |
| A. | costs of networking and communications |
| B. | costs of providing heating and lighting office space |
| C. | costs of lunch time food |
| D. | costs of support staff |
| Answer» C. costs of lunch time food | |
| Explanation: this is a incurred by the employees. | |
| 122. |
What is related to the overall functionality of the delivered software? |
| A. | function-related metrics |
| B. | product-related metrics |
| C. | size-related metrics |
| D. | none of the mentioned |
| Answer» A. function-related metrics | |
| Explanation: productivity is expressed in terms of the amount of useful functionality produced in some given time. function points and object points | |
| 123. |
A is developed using historical cost information that relates some software metric to the project cost. |
| A. | algorithmic cost modelling |
| B. | expert judgement |
| C. | estimation by analogy |
| D. | parkinson’s law |
| Answer» A. algorithmic cost modelling | |
| Explanation: the model uses a basic regression formula with parameters that are derived from historical project data and current as well as future project characteristics. | |
| 124. |
It is often difficult to estimate size at an early stage in a project when only a specification is available |
| A. | true |
| B. | false |
| Answer» A. true | |
| Explanation: function-point and object-point estimates are easier to produce than estimates of code size but are often still inaccurate. | |
| 125. |
Which technique is applicable when other projects in the same analogy application domain have been completed? |
| A. | algorithmic cost modelling |
| B. | expert judgement |
| C. | estimation by analogy |
| D. | parkinson’s law |
| Answer» C. estimation by analogy | |
| Explanation: the cost of a new project is estimated by analogy with these completed projects. | |
| 126. |
Which model assumes that systems are created from reusable components, scripting or database programming? |
| A. | an application-composition model |
| B. | a post-architecture model |
| C. | a reuse model |
| D. | an early design model |
| Answer» A. an application-composition model | |
| Explanation: it is designed to make estimates of prototype development. | |
| 127. |
Which of the following states that work expands to fill the time available. |
| A. | case tools |
| B. | pricing to win |
| C. | parkinson’s law |
| D. | expert judgement |
| Answer» C. parkinson’s law | |
| Explanation: the cost is determined by available resources rather than by objective assessment. if the software has to be delivered in 12 months and 5 people are available, the effort required is estimated to be 60 person-months. | |
| 128. |
Which model is used during early stages of the system design after the requirements have been established? |
| A. | an application-composition model |
| B. | a post-architecture model |
| C. | a reuse model |
| D. | an early design model |
| Answer» D. an early design model | |
| Explanation: estimates are based on function points, which are then converted to number of lines of source code. the formula follows the standard form discussed above with a simplified set of seven multipliers. | |
| 129. |
Which model is used to compute the effort required to integrate reusable components or program code that is automatically generated by design or program translation tools? |
| A. | an application-composition model |
| B. | a post-architecture model |
| C. | a reuse model |
| D. | an early design model |
| Answer» C. a reuse model | |
| Explanation: none. | |
| 130. |
The COCOMO model takes into account different approaches to software development, reuse, etc. |
| A. | true |
| B. | false |
| Answer» B. false | |
| Explanation: its the cocomo-2 model. cocomo 2 incorporates a range of sub- models that produce increasingly detailed software estimates. | |
| 131. |
Which of the following is not a metric for design model? |
| A. | interface design metrics |
| B. | component-level metrics |
| C. | architectural metrics |
| D. | complexity metrics |
| Answer» D. complexity metrics | |
| Explanation: complexity metrics measure the logical complexity of source code. | |
| 132. |
Statement and branch coverage metrics are part of |
| A. | analysis model |
| B. | testing |
| C. | design model |
| D. | source code |
| Answer» B. testing | |
| Explanation: these metrics lead to the design of test cases that provide program coverage. | |
| 133. |
Function Points in software engineering was first proposed by |
| A. | booch |
| B. | boehm |
| C. | albrecht |
| D. | jacobson |
| Answer» C. albrecht | |
| Explanation: first proposed by albrecht in 1979, hundreds of books and papers have been written on functions points since then. | |
| 134. |
How many Information Domain Values are used for Function Point Computation? |
| A. | three |
| B. | four |
| C. | five |
| D. | six |
| Answer» C. five | |
| Explanation: the five values are: external inputs, external outputs, external inquiries, internal logical files and external interface files. | |
| 135. |
Function Point Computation is given by the formula |
| A. | fp = [count total * 0.65] + 0.01 * sum(fi) |
| B. | fp = count total * [0.65 + 0.01 * sum(fi)]. |
| C. | fp = count total * [0.65 + 0.01] * sum(fi) |
| D. | fp = [count total * 0.65 + 0.01] * sum(fi) |
| Answer» B. fp = count total * [0.65 + 0.01 * sum(fi)]. | |
| Explanation: option b is the correct formula for function point computation. | |
| 136. |
Structural complexity of a module i is given as S(i) = f*f (i). What does f symbolizes here? |
| A. | “fan check-out” of module i |
| B. | “fan check-in” of module i |
| C. | “fan in” of module i |
| D. | “fan out” of module i |
| Answer» D. “fan out” of module i | |
| Explanation: fan out is number of modules directly invoked by module i. | |
| 137. |
SMI stands for |
| A. | software mature indicator |
| B. | software maturity index |
| C. | software mature index |
| D. | software maturity indicator |
| Answer» B. software maturity index | |
| Explanation: none. | |
| 138. |
As the SMI approaches 1.0, the software product starts becoming unstable |
| A. | true |
| B. | false |
| Answer» B. false | |
| Explanation: as the smi approaches 1.0, the software product begins to stabilize. | |
| 139. |
SMI = [Mt – (Fa + Fc + Fd)]/Mt. Here Mt is the number of modules |
| A. | in the current release |
| B. | in the current release that have been changed |
| C. | from the preceding release that were deleted in the current release |
| D. | none of the mentioned |
| Answer» A. in the current release | |
| Explanation: none. | |
| 140. |
The amount of time that the software is available for use is known as |
| A. | reliability |
| B. | usability |
| C. | efficiency |
| D. | functionality |
| Answer» A. reliability | |
| Explanation: none. | |
| 141. |
Usability in metric analysis is defined as the degree to which the software |
| A. | stated needs |
| B. | is easy to use |
| C. | makes optimal use of system resources |
| D. | none of the mentioned |
| Answer» B. is easy to use | |
| Explanation: none. | |
| 142. |
Which of the following is the reason that software is delivered late? |
| A. | changing customer requirements that are not reflected in schedule changes |
| B. | technical difficulties that could not have been foreseen in advance |
| C. | human difficulties that could not have been foreseen in advance |
| D. | all of the mentioned |
| Answer» D. all of the mentioned | |
| Explanation: none. | |
| 143. |
Which of the following is an activity that distributes estimated effort across the planned project duration by allocating the effort to specific software engineering tasks? |
| A. | software macroscopic schedule |
| B. | software project scheduling |
| C. | software detailed schedule |
| D. | none of the mentioned |
| Answer» B. software project scheduling | |
| Explanation: none. | |
| 144. |
Every task that is scheduled should be assigned to a specific team member is termed as |
| A. | compartmentalization |
| B. | defined milestones |
| C. | defined responsibilities |
| D. | defined outcomes |
| Answer» C. defined responsibilities | |
| Explanation: these responsibilities are domain specific. | |
| 145. |
What is a collection of software engineering work tasks, milestones, and deliverables that must be accomplished to complete a particular project? |
| A. | task set |
| B. | degree of milestone |
| C. | adaptation criteria |
| D. | all of the mentioned |
| Answer» A. task set | |
| Explanation: none. | |
| 146. |
Ensuring that no more than the allocated number of people are allocated at any given time in Software Scheduling is known as |
| A. | time allocation |
| B. | effort validation |
| C. | defined milestone |
| D. | effort distribution |
| Answer» B. effort validation | |
| Explanation: none. | |
| 147. |
What is used to determine the recommended degree of rigor with which the software process should be applied on a project? |
| A. | degree of rigor |
| B. | adaptation criteria |
| C. | task set |
| D. | both degree of rigor and adaptation criteria |
| Answer» B. adaptation criteria | |
| Explanation: four different degrees of rigor are: casual, structured, strict, and quick reaction. | |
| 148. |
What evaluates the risk associated with the technology to be implemented as part of project scope? |
| A. | concept scoping |
| B. | preliminary concept planning |
| C. | technology risk assessment |
| D. | customer reaction to the concept |
| Answer» B. preliminary concept planning | |
| Explanation: none. | |
| 149. |
Which of the following is not an adaptation criteria for software projects? |
| A. | size of the project |
| B. | customers complaints |
| C. | project staff |
| D. | mission criticality |
| Answer» B. customers complaints | |
| Explanation: these can vary from client to client. | |
| 150. |
Which of the following is a project scheduling method that can be applied to software development? |
| A. | pert |
| B. | cpm |
| C. | cmm |
| D. | both pert and cpm |
| Answer» D. both pert and cpm | |
| Explanation: program evaluation and review technique (pert) and critical path method | |
| 151. |
A technique for performing quantitative analysis of progress is known as |
| A. | bcws |
| B. | eva |
| C. | bac |
| D. | cbse |
| Answer» B. eva | |
| Explanation: the earned value system provides a common value scale for every task, regardless of the type of work being performed. the total hours to do the whole project are estimated, and every task is given an earned value based on its estimated percentage of the total. | |
| 152. |
What is the recommended distribution of effort for a project? |
| A. | 40-20-40 |
| B. | 50-20-30 |
| C. | 30-40-30 |
| D. | 50-30-20 |
| Answer» A. 40-20-40 | |
| Explanation: a recommended distribution of effort across the software process is 40% (analysis and design), 20% (coding), and 40% (testing). | |
| 153. |
A project usually has a timeline chart which was developed by |
| A. | henry gantt |
| B. | barry boehm |
| C. | ivar jacabson |
| D. | none of the mentioned |
| Answer» A. henry gantt | |
| Explanation: timeline chart, also called a gantt chart was invented by henry gantt, an | |
| 154. |
Round robin scheduling falls under the category of |
| A. | non-preemptive scheduling |
| B. | preemptive scheduling |
| C. | all of the mentioned |
| D. | none of the mentioned |
| Answer» B. preemptive scheduling | |
| Explanation: none. | |
| 155. |
With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system |
| A. | using very large time slices converts it into first come first served scheduling algorithm |
| B. | using very small time slices converts it into first come first served scheduling algorithm |
| C. | using extremely small time slices increases performance |
| D. | using very small time slices converts it into shortest job first algorithm |
| Answer» A. using very large time slices converts it into first come first served scheduling algorithm | |
| Explanation: all the processes will be able to get completed. | |
| 156. |
The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that dispatches processes is concerned with |
| A. | assigning ready processes to cpu |
| B. | assigning ready processes to waiting queue |
| C. | assigning running processes to blocked queue |
| D. | all of the mentioned |
| Answer» A. assigning ready processes to cpu | |
| Explanation: none. | |
| 157. |
What is FIFO algorithm? |
| A. | first executes the job that came in last in the queue |
| B. | first executes the job that came in first in the queue |
| C. | first executes the job that needs minimal processor |
| D. | first executes the job that has maximum processor needs |
| Answer» B. first executes the job that came in first in the queue | |
| Explanation: none. | |
| 158. |
The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily suspended is called |
| A. | non preemptive scheduling |
| B. | preemptive scheduling |
| C. | shortest job first |
| D. | first come first served |
| Answer» B. preemptive scheduling | |
| Explanation: none. | |
| 159. |
What is Scheduling? |
| A. | allowing a job to use the processor |
| B. | making proper use of processor |
| C. | all of the mentioned |
| D. | none of the mentioned |
| Answer» A. allowing a job to use the processor | |
| Explanation: none. | |
| 160. |
There are 10 different processes running on a workstation. Idle processes are waiting for an input event in the input queue. Busy processes are scheduled with the Round- Robin time sharing method. Which out of the following quantum times is the best value for small response times, if the processes have a short runtime, e.g. less than 10ms? |
| A. | tq = 15ms |
| B. | tq = 40ms |
| C. | tq = 45ms |
| D. | tq = 50ms |
| Answer» A. tq = 15ms | |
| Explanation: none. | |
| 161. |
Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if rule sequences the jobs. |
| A. | earliest due date |
| B. | slack time remaining |
| C. | first come, first served |
| D. | critical ratio |
| Answer» C. first come, first served | |
| Explanation: none. | |
| 162. |
Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time? |
| A. | first come first served |
| B. | shortest job first |
| C. | earliest deadline first |
| D. | longest job first |
| Answer» B. shortest job first | |
| Explanation: none. | |
| 163. |
Under multiprogramming, turnaround time for short jobs is usually and that for long jobs is slightly |
| A. | lengthened; shortened |
| B. | shortened; lengthened |
| C. | shortened; shortened |
| D. | shortened; unchanged |
| Answer» B. shortened; lengthened | |
| Explanation: none. | |
| 164. |
OSI stands for |
| A. | open system interconnection |
| B. | operating system interface |
| C. | optical service implementation |
| D. | open service internet |
| Answer» A. open system interconnection | |
| Explanation: osi is the abbreviation for open system interconnection. osi model provides a structured plan on how applications communicate over a network, which also helps us to have a structured plan for troubleshooting. it is recognized by the iso as the generalized model for computer network i.e. it can be modified to design any kind of computer network. | |
| 165. |
The number of layers in ISO OSI reference model is |
| A. | 4 |
| B. | 5 |
| C. | 6 |
| D. | 7 |
| Answer» D. 7 | |
| Explanation: in osi reference model, there | |
| 166. |
TCP/IP model does not have layer but OSI model have this layer. |
| A. | session layer |
| B. | transport layer |
| C. | application layer |
| D. | network layer |
| Answer» A. session layer | |
| Explanation: in osi reference model, there are two layers which are not present in tcp/ip model. they are presentation and session layer. the functions of presentation and session layer in the osi model are handled by the transport layer itself in tcp/ip. | |
| 167. |
Which layer is used to link the network support layers and user support layers? |
| A. | session layer |
| B. | data link layer |
| C. | transport layer |
| D. | network layer |
| Answer» C. transport layer | |
| Explanation: physical, data link and network layers are network support layers and session, presentation and application layers are user support layers. the transport layer links these layers by segmenting and rearranging the data. it uses protocols like tcp and udp. | |
| 168. |
Which address is used on the internet for employing the TCP/IP protocols? |
| A. | physical address and logical address |
| B. | port address |
| C. | specific address |
| D. | all of the mentioned |
| Answer» D. all of the mentioned | |
| Explanation: the physical, logical, port and specific addresses are used in tcp/ip | |
| 169. |
TCP/IP model was developed the OSI model. |
| A. | prior to |
| B. | after |
| C. | simultaneous to |
| D. | with no link to |
| Answer» A. prior to | |
| Explanation: several tcp/ip prototypes were developed at multiple research centers between 1978 and 1983, whereas osi reference model was developed in the year 1984. tcp/ip was developed with the intention to create a model for the internet while osi was intended to be a general network model. | |
| 170. |
Which layer provides the services to user? |
| A. | application layer |
| B. | session layer |
| C. | presentation layer |
| D. | physical layer |
| Answer» A. application layer | |
| Explanation: in networking, a user mainly interacts with application layer to create and send information to other computer or network. application layer provides the interface between applications and the network. it is the top-most layer in both the tcp/ip and the osi model. | |
| 171. |
Which of the following term describes testing? |
| A. | finding broken code |
| B. | evaluating deliverable to find errors |
| C. | a stage of all projects |
| D. | none of the mentioned |
| Answer» B. evaluating deliverable to find errors | |
| Explanation: software testing is the process of evaluation a software item to detect differences between given input and expected output. | |
| 172. |
What is Cyclomatic complexity? |
| A. | black box testing |
| B. | white box testing |
| C. | yellow box testing |
| D. | green box testing |
| Answer» B. white box testing | |
| Explanation: cyclomatic complexity measures the amount of decision logic in the program module.cyclomatic complexity gives the minimum number of paths that can generate all possible paths through the module. | |
| 173. |
Lower and upper limits are present in which chart? |
| A. | run chart |
| B. | bar chart |
| C. | control chart |
| D. | none of the mentioned |
| Answer» A. run chart | |
| Explanation: a run chart is used to monitor the behavior of a variable over time for a process or system. run charts graphically display cycles, trends, shifts, or non-random patterns in behavior over time. it contains lower and upper limits. | |
| 174. |
Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology? |
| A. | retesting |
| B. | sanity testing |
| C. | breadth test and depth test |
| D. | confirmation testing |
| Answer» C. breadth test and depth test | |
| Explanation: maintenance testing is done on the already deployed software. the deployed software needs to be enhanced, changed or migrated to other hardware. the testing done during this enhancement, change and migration cycle is known as maintenance testing. | |
| 175. |
White Box techniques are also classified as |
| A. | design based testing |
| B. | structural testing |
| C. | error guessing technique |
| D. | none of the mentioned |
| Answer» B. structural testing | |
| Explanation: the structural testing is the testing of the structure of the system or component. structural testing is often referred to as ‘white box’ or ‘glass box’ or ‘clear-box testing’ because in structural testing we are interested in what is happening ‘inside the system/application’. | |
| 176. |
Exhaustive testing is |
| A. | always possible |
| B. | practically possible |
| C. | impractical but possible |
| D. | impractical and impossible |
| Answer» C. impractical but possible | |
| Explanation: exhaustive testing is the testing where we execute single test case for multiple test data.it means if we are using single test case for different product or module under manual testing. | |
| 177. |
Which of the following is/are White box technique? |
| A. | statement testing |
| B. | decision testing |
| C. | condition coverage |
| D. | all of the mentioned |
| Answer» D. all of the mentioned | |
| Explanation: statement testing, decision testing, condition coverage all of them uses white box technique. | |
| 178. |
What are the various Testing Levels? |
| A. | unit testing |
| B. | system testing |
| C. | integration testing |
| D. | all of the mentioned |
| Answer» D. all of the mentioned | |
| Explanation: unit, system, integration testing all of them are levels in testing. | |
| 179. |
Boundary value analysis belong to? |
| A. | white box testing |
| B. | black box testing |
| C. | white box & black box testing |
| D. | none of the mentioned |
| Answer» B. black box testing | |
| Explanation: boundary value analysis is based on testing at the boundaries between partitions and checks the output with expected output. | |
| 180. |
Alpha testing is done at |
| A. | developer’s end |
| B. | user’s end |
| C. | developer’s & user’s end |
| D. | none of the mentioned |
| Answer» A. developer’s end | |
| Explanation: alpha testing takes place at the developer’s end. developers observe the users and note problems. alpha testing is testing of an application when development is about to complete. minor design changes can still be made as a result of alpha testing. | |
| 181. |
What is the main purpose of hazard identification? |
| A. | to minimise the effect of a consequence |
| B. | for better risk management |
| C. | to characterize adverse effect of toxins |
| D. | to reduce probability of occurrence |
| Answer» C. to characterize adverse effect of toxins | |
| Explanation: hazard identification is the first step in risk assessment. the goal is to understand the concentration of toxins, spatial distribution and there movement. | |
| 182. |
The process determines whether exposure to a chemical can increase the incidence of adverse health effect. |
| A. | hazard identification |
| B. | exposure assessment |
| C. | toxicity assessment |
| D. | risk characterization |
| Answer» A. hazard identification | |
| Explanation: hazard identification traces the path of the toxins and also determines the likelihood of occurrence in humans. | |
| 183. |
Which of the following data is not required for hazard identification? |
| A. | land use |
| B. | contaminant levels |
| C. | affected population |
| D. | estimation of risk |
| Answer» D. estimation of risk | |
| Explanation: estimation of risk is done at risk characterization whereas land use, contaminant level, affected population and biota data play a major role while identifying a hazard. | |
| 184. |
Hazard is defined as the probability of suffering harm or loss. |
| A. | true |
| B. | false |
| C. | topic 3.10 risk identification |
| D. | topic 3.9 critical path (crm) method |
| Answer» B. false | |
| Explanation: risk is the probability of suffering harm whereas hazard is a potential source of harm. | |
| 185. |
Why does site history have to be considered for hazard identification? |
| A. | to estimate the risk |
| B. | to calculate carcinogenic exposure |
| C. | to know the probable source and causes of contamination on site |
| D. | for determination of remedial actions |
| Answer» C. to know the probable source and causes of contamination on site | |
| Explanation: site history provides precise information about the activities that had been carried on the area. most of the instance contamination is due to past activities on site. | |
| 186. |
What is the main objective of risk assessment? |
| A. | to evaluate hazard and minimize the risks |
| B. | remediation of contaminated sites |
| C. | hazard management |
| D. | to know source of pollutants |
| Answer» A. to evaluate hazard and minimize the risks | |
| Explanation: risk assessment helps to understand possible problems and provides alternatives as well as control measures to reduce the accident. | |
| 187. |
What is the first stage of risk assessment? |
| A. | exposure assessment |
| B. | hazard identification |
| C. | toxicity study |
| D. | risk characterization |
| Answer» B. hazard identification | |
| Explanation: hazard identification is the first stage of risk assessment. it provides clear understanding about chemical contaminants, their concentration and distribution in environment. | |
| 188. |
The purpose of risk management is to identify potential problems before they occur so that risk-handling activities may be planned. |
| A. | false |
| B. | true |
| Answer» B. true | |
| Explanation: the main goal of risk management is to reduce the threats from an activity so that harm to the surrounding is minimized. | |
| 189. |
Hazard identification mainly focus on |
| A. | chemical source and concentration |
| B. | chemical exposure |
| C. | chemical analysis |
| D. | chemical pathway |
| Answer» A. chemical source and concentration | |
| Explanation: the main aim of hazard identification is to identify chemical source, concentration and its movement in environment. | |
| 190. |
Hazard is defined as the probability of suffering harm or loss. |
| A. | true |
| B. | false |
| Answer» B. false | |
| Explanation: risk is the probability of suffering harm whereas hazard is a potential source of harm. | |
| 191. |
An incident can be called hazardous only when? |
| A. | stressor has the potential to cause harm to humans and ecological systems |
| B. | poses threat to surrounding |
| C. | monitoring is failed |
| D. | outburst of chemicals |
| Answer» A. stressor has the potential to cause harm to humans and ecological systems | |
| Explanation: an incident is called hazardous only when the contaminant poses threat to humans and ecological systems which may results in catastrophic. | |
| 192. |
Which of the following is not a phase of project management? |
| A. | project planning |
| B. | project scheduling |
| C. | project controlling |
| D. | project being |
| Answer» D. project being | |
| Explanation: there are three phases of project management. these are project planning, project scheduling and project controlling. project management refers to a highly specialised job to achieve the objectives of a project. | |
| 193. |
Who introduced the bar charts? |
| A. | williams henry |
| B. | henry gantt |
| C. | jane gantt |
| D. | joseph henry |
| Answer» B. henry gantt | |
| Explanation: henry gantt introduced the bar charts around 1900 a.d. they give pictorial representation in two dimensions of a project by breaking it down into numerous manageable units. | |
| 194. |
Bar charts were modified later to obtain the milestone charts. |
| A. | true |
| B. | false |
| C. | topic 3.14 pert technique |
| Answer» A. true | |
| Explanation: the various tools or techniques used for project management are bar charts, milestone charts and network diagrams. bar charts were modified later to obtain the milestone charts. | |
| 195. |
The full form of PERT is |
| A. | program evaluation and rate technology |
| B. | program evaluation and robot technique |
| C. | program evaluation and robot technology |
| D. | program evaluation and review technique |
| Answer» D. program evaluation and review technique | |
| Explanation: there are various network techniques that are called by various names like pert, cpm, tops and less. network technique is one of the major advancements in management science. the full form of pert is program evaluation and review technique. | |
| 196. |
The full form of CPM is |
| A. | critical path method |
| B. | control path method |
| C. | critical plan management |
| D. | control path management |
| Answer» A. critical path method | |
| Explanation: the full form of cpm is the critical path method. cpm networks are mainly used for those projects for which a fairly accurate estimate of time of completion can be made for each activity. | |
| 197. |
In bar charts, which colour is used to show the actual progress? |
| A. | red |
| B. | black |
| C. | blue |
| D. | green |
| Answer» D. green | |
| Explanation: in bar charts, different colours are sometimes filled in the bars for showing various control information. for actual progress, green colour is used. for anticipated | |
| 198. |
A PERT network is activity-oriented while a CPM network is event-oriented. |
| A. | true |
| B. | false |
| Answer» B. false | |
| Explanation: a cpm network is activity- oriented while a pert network is event- oriented. event is the completion of an activity or the commencement of an activity. an event may be head event, tail event or dual role event. | |
| 199. |
are used to represent activity in a network diagram. |
| A. | circles |
| B. | squares |
| C. | rectangles |
| D. | arrows |
| Answer» D. arrows | |
| Explanation: a network is a flow diagram that consists of events and activities which are connected sequentially and logically. | |
| 200. |
The shortest possible time in which an activity can be achieved under ideal circumstances is known as |
| A. | pessimistic time estimate |
| B. | optimistic time estimate |
| C. | expected time estimate |
| D. | the most likely time estimate |
| Answer» B. optimistic time estimate | |
| Explanation: there are three kinds of time estimates made by pert planners. these are the optimistic time estimate, the pessimistic time estimate and the most likely time estimate. the shortest possible time in which an activity can be achieved under ideal circumstances is known as the optimistic time estimate. | |
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