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360+ Software Project Management (SPM) Solved MCQs

These multiple-choice questions (MCQs) are designed to enhance your knowledge and understanding in the following areas: Computer Science Engineering (CSE) .

251.

Which of the following paradigm attempts to structure a team in a manner that achieves some of the controls associated with the closed paradigm but also much of the innovation that occurs when using the random paradigm?

A. asynchronous paradigm
B. open paradigm
C. closed paradigm
D. synchronous paradigm
Answer» B. open paradigm
Explanation: open paradigm team structures are well suited to the solution of complex problems but may not perform as efficiently as other teams.
252.

Which of the following is a people- intensive activity?

A. problem solving
B. organization
C. motivation
D. project management
Answer» D. project management
Explanation: for this reason, competent practitioners often make poor team leaders.
253.

Which paradigm structures a team loosely and depends on individual initiative of the team members?

A. random paradigm
B. open paradigm
C. closed paradigm
D. synchronous paradigm
Answer» D. synchronous paradigm
Explanation: none.
254.

Which of the following is not an approach to software cost estimation?

A. empirical
B. heuristic
C. analytical
D. critical
Answer» D. critical
Explanation: critical is no such standard approach of cost estimation.
255.

Which paradigm relies on the natural compartmentalization of a problem and organizes team members to work on pieces of the problem with little active communication among themselves?

A. random paradigm
B. open paradigm
C. closed paradigm
D. synchronous paradigm
Answer» C. closed paradigm
Explanation: none.
256.

Who interacts with the software once it is released for production use?

A. end-users
B. client
C. project (technical) managers
D. senior managers
Answer» A. end-users
Explanation: a product is always built to satisfy an end-user.
257.

Which of the following is not an effective project manager trait?

A. problem solving
B. managerial identity
C. influence and team building
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» D. none of the mentioned
Explanation: all are key traits of an effective project manager.
258.

Which type of software engineering team has a defined leader who coordinates specific tasks and secondary leaders that have responsibility for sub tasks?

A. controlled decentralized (cd)
B. democratic decentralized (dd)
C. controlled centralized (cc)
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» A. controlled decentralized (cd)
Explanation: problem solving remains a group activity, but implementation of solutions is partitioned among subgroups by the team leader.
259.

Commitments to unrealistic time and resource estimates may result in

A. project delay
B. poor quality work
C. project failure
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» D. all of the mentioned
Explanation: none.
260.

Which software engineering team has no permanent leader?

A. controlled decentralized (cd)
B. democratic decentralized (dd)
C. controlled centralized (cc)
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» B. democratic decentralized (dd)
Explanation: here communication among team members is horizontal.
261.

Which of the following is not a project factor that should be considered when planning the structure of software engineering teams?

A. the difficulty of the problem to be solved
B. high frustration caused by personal, business, or technological factors that causes friction among team members
C. the degree of sociability required for the project
D. the rigidity of the delivery date
Answer» C. the degree of sociability required for the project
Explanation: development is irrelevant of social quotient.
262.

Which of the following is a collection of project coordination technique?

A. formal approaches
B. formal, interpersonal procedures
C. informal, interpersonal procedures
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» D. all of the mentioned
Explanation: none.
263.

Which activity sits at the core of software requirements analysis?

A. problem decomposition
B. partitioning
C. problem elaboration
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» D. all of the mentioned
Explanation: during the scoping activity decomposition is applied in two major areas:
264.

Which of the following is not a sign that indicates that an information systems project is in jeopardy?

A. software people don’t understand their customers needs
B. changes are managed poorly
C. sponsorship is gained
D. users are resistant
Answer» C. sponsorship is gained
Explanation: other options are contradictory to the question.
265.

SPMP stands for

A. software project manager’s plan
B. software project management plan
C. software product management plan
D. software product manager’s plan
Answer» B. software project management plan
Explanation: after planning is complete, documenting of the plans is done in a software project management plan(spmp) document.
266.

Which of the following categories is part of the output of software process?

A. computer programs
B. documents that describe the computer programs
C. data
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» D. all of the mentioned
Explanation: none
267.

4 COST MONITORING

A. baselines
B. source code
C. data model
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» A. baselines
Explanation: a baseline is analogous to the kitchen doors in the restaurant. before a software configuration item becomes a baseline, change may be made quickly and informally.
268.

Software Configuration Management can be administered in several ways. These include

A. a single software configuration management team for the whole organization
B. a separate configuration management team for each project
C. software configuration management distributed among the project members
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» A. a single software configuration management team for the whole organization
Explanation: none
269.

What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration objects that are created during the software process?

A. change control
B. version control
C. scis
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» B. version control
Explanation: configuration management allows a user to specify alternative configurations of the software system through the selection of appropriate versions.
270.

What complements the formal technical review by assessing a configuration object for characteristics that are generally not considered during review?

A. software configuration audit
B. software configuration management
C. baseline
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» A. software configuration audit
Explanation: none.
271.

Which of the following is the process of assembling program components, data, and libraries, and then compiling and linking these to create an executable system?

A. system building
B. release management
C. change management
D. version management
Answer» A. system building
Explanation: none.
272.

Which of the following option is not tracked by configuration management tools?

A. tracking of change proposals
B. storing versions of system components
C. tracking the releases of system versions to customers
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» D. none of the mentioned
Explanation: all the options are tracked.
273.

Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?

A. configuration item identification
B. risk management
C. release management
D. branch management
Answer» B. risk management
Explanation: risk management is an entirely different domain.
274.

The definition and use of configuration management standards is essential for quality certification in

A. iso 9000
B. cmm
C. cmmi
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» D. all of the mentioned
Explanation: it is defined in all the mentioned options.
275.

What involves preparing software for external release and keeping track of the system versions that have been released for customer use?

A. system building
B. release management
C. change management
D. version management
Answer» B. release management
Explanation: none.
276.

Which of the following process ensures that versions of systems and components are recorded and maintained?

A. codeline
B. configuration control
C. version
D. workspace
Answer» B. configuration control
Explanation: in configuration control changes are managed and all versions of components are identified and stored for the lifetime.
277.

Which of the following process is concerned with analyzing the costs and benefits of proposed changes?

A. change management
B. version management
C. system building
D. release management
Answer» A. change management
Explanation: it involves approving those changes that are worthwhile, and tracking
278.

Which of the following is not a Version management feature?

A. version and release identification
B. build script generation
C. project support
D. change history recording
Answer» B. build script generation
Explanation: all other options are a part of version management.
279.

Which method recommends that very frequent system builds should be carried out with automated testing to discover software problems?

A. agile method
B. parallel compilation method
C. large systems method
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» A. agile method
Explanation: in keeping with the agile methods notion of making many small changes, continuous integration involves rebuilding the mainline frequently, after small source code changes have been made.
280.

Which of the following is not a build system feature?

A. minimal recompilation
B. documentation generation
C. storage management
D. reporting
Answer» C. storage management
Explanation: to reduce the storage space required by multiple versions of components that differ only slightly, version management systems usually provide storage management facilities.
281.

Which of the following is a configuration item?

A. design & test specification
B. source code
C. log information
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» D. all of the mentioned
Explanation: a configuration item is an approved and accepted deliverable, changes have to be made through formal procedure.
282.

Which of the following is a part of system release?

A. electronic and paper documentation describing the system
B. packaging and associated publicity that have been designed for that release
C. an installation program that is used to help install the system on target hardware
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» D. all of the mentioned
Explanation: release creation is the process of creating the collection of files and documentation that includes all of the components of the system release.
283.

A sequence of baselines representing different versions of a system is known as

A. system building
B. mainline
C. software configuration item(sci)
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» B. mainline
Explanation: none.
284.

“Robustness” answers which of the following description?

A. case tools be used to support the process activities
B. process errors are avoided or trapped before they result in product errors
C. defined process is acceptable and usable by the engineers responsible for producing the software
D. process continues in spite of unexpected problems
Answer» D. process continues in spite of unexpected problems
Explanation: none.
285.

Process improvement is the set of activities, methods, and transformations that developers use to develop and maintain information systems.

A. true
B. false
Answer» B. false
Explanation: the definition is of a system development process.
286.

How many stages are there in process improvement?

A. three
B. four
C. five
D. six
Answer» A. three
Explanation: process measurement, analysis and change are the three stages.
287.

In which stage of process improvement bottlenecks and weaknesses are identified?

A. process measurement
B. process analysis
C. process change
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» B. process analysis
Explanation: in process analysis the current process is assessed and bottlenecks and weaknesses are identified.
288.

Prototypes and 4GL business systems are categorized under which process?

A. informal
B. managed
C. methodical
D. supported
Answer» A. informal
Explanation: here the development team chose their own way of working.
289.

The documentation of a process which records the tasks, the roles and the entities used is called

A. process metric
B. process analysis
C. process modelling
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» C. process modelling
Explanation: process models may be presented from different perspectives.
290.

It is always best to start process analysis with a new test model.

A. true
B. false
Answer» B. false
Explanation: it is always best to start process analysis with an existing model. people then may extend and change this.
291.

What is a tangible output of an activity that is predicted in a project plan?

A. deliverable
B. activity
C. condition
D. process
Answer» A. deliverable
Explanation: none.
292.

What is often undefined and is left to the ingenuity of the project managers and engineers?

A. role
B. exception
C. activity
D. process
Answer» B. exception
Explanation: exceptions are often undefined and it is left to the ingenuity of the project managers and engineers to handle the exception.
293.

Which of the following is not a part of process change?

A. introducing new practices, methods or processes
B. introducing new team members to existing project
C. introducing or removing deliverable
D. introducing new roles or responsibilities
Answer» B. introducing new team members to existing project
Explanation: adding more developers aid to process completion rather than changing it.
294.

The Capability Maturity Model (CMM) is a continuous model.

A. true
B. false
Answer» B. false
Explanation: the cmm is discrete rather than continuous.
295.

The CMMI assessment is based on a x- point scale. What is the value of x?

A. 0
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
Answer» D. 6
Explanation: not performed, performed, managed, defined, quantitatively managed, and optimizing are the six points.
296.

CM is about managing the different items in the product, and changes in them.

A. true
B. false
Answer» A. true
Explanation: none.
297.

Which is a software configuration management concept that helps us to control change without seriously impeding justifiable change?

A. baselines
B. source code
C. data model
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» A. baselines
Explanation: a baseline is analogous to the kitchen doors in the restaurant. before a software configuration item becomes a baseline, change may be made quickly and informally.
298.

A voluntary arrangement between two or more parties that is enforceable by law as a binding legal agreement is known as

A. job
B. loan
C. contract
D. mutual fund
Answer» C. contract
Explanation: a contract arises when the parties agree that there is an agreement. formation of a contract generally requires an offer, acceptance, consideration, and a mutual intent to be bound. each party to a contract must have capacity to enter the agreement.
299.

What is the type of mistake which occurs when only one party to a contract is mistaken as to the terms or subject-matter?

A. mutual mistake
B. unilateral mistake
C. bilateral mistake
D. individual mistake
Answer» B. unilateral mistake
Explanation: the courts will uphold such a contract unless it was determined that the non-mistaken party was aware of the mistake and tried to take advantage of the mistake. it is also possible for a contract to be void if there was a mistake in the identity of the contracting party. an example is in lewis v.
300.

                               contract is one that has automatic renewals until one party requests termination.

A. uniform
B. evergreen
C. moderate
D. on-demand
Answer» B. evergreen
Explanation: if these are left unattended, they can have significant cost impacts with little value. if these agreements won’t work for the company, the clauses stating the contract automatically renews should be removed. if the clause makes sense or cannot be taken out, alerts can still be set in a contract management platform as a reminder.

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