McqMate
| 301. |
How are final contracts signed in modern business? |
| A. | e-signatures |
| B. | document scanning |
| C. | thump impression |
| D. | shaking hands |
| Answer» A. e-signatures | |
| Explanation: electronic signatures, or e- signatures, have become crucial for businesses as they seek to increase the speed of time-to-signature, e-signatures are legally binding and have the same legal status as a written signature, as long as it fulfills the requirements of the regulation it was created under. | |
| 302. |
Which tender allows anyone to submit a tender to supply the goods or services that are required? |
| A. | framework tendering |
| B. | selective tendering |
| C. | open tendering |
| D. | close tendering |
| Answer» C. open tendering | |
| Explanation: on larger projects, there may then be a pre-qualification process that produces a short-list of suitable suppliers who will be invited to prepare tenders. this sort of pre-qualification process is not the same as selective tendering. | |
| 303. |
involves the preparation of tenders based on a typical or notional bill of quantities or schedule of works. |
| A. | framework tendering |
| B. | selective tendering |
| C. | negotiated tendering |
| D. | serial tendering |
| Answer» D. serial tendering | |
| Explanation: the rates submitted can then be used to value works over a series of similar projects, often for a fixed period of time following which the tendering procedure may be repeated. serial tendering can reduce tender costs, and may encourage suppliers to submit low rates to secure an ongoing program of work. | |
| 304. |
tendering is used when all the information necessary to calculate a realistic price is available when tendering commences. |
| A. | single-stage |
| B. | double-stage |
| C. | framework |
| D. | serial |
| Answer» A. single-stage | |
| Explanation: single-stage tendering is the more traditional route, used when all the information necessary to calculate a realistic price is available when tendering commences: | |
| 305. |
An invitation to tender might not include? |
| A. | holiday packages |
| B. | preliminarie |
| C. | a letter of invitation to tender |
| D. | design drawing |
| Answer» A. holiday packages | |
| Explanation: an invitation to tender might be issued for a range of contracts, including; equipment supply, the main construction contract (perhaps including design by the contractor), demolition, enabling works and so on. | |
| 306. |
Mutual mistake occurs when both parties of a contract are mistaken as to the terms. |
| A. | false |
| B. | true |
| Answer» B. true | |
| Explanation: each believes they are contracting to something different. courts usually try to uphold such mistakes if a reasonable interpretation of the terms can be found. however, a contract based on a mutual mistake in judgment does not cause the contract to be voidable by the party that is adversely affected. | |
| 307. |
In Schedule contract the contractor undertakes the execution or construction of specific work with all its contingencies, to complete it in all respect within a specified time for a fixed amount. |
| A. | false |
| B. | true |
| Answer» A. false | |
| Explanation: in lump sum contract the contractor undertakes the execution or construction of specific work with all its contingencies, to complete it in all respect within a specified time for a fixed amount. in this an owner agrees to pay a contractor a specified lump sum after the completion of work without a cost breakdown. after work no detailed measurements are required. | |
| 308. |
Which of the following is not an effective software project management focus? |
| A. | people |
| B. | product |
| C. | popularity |
| D. | process |
| Answer» C. popularity | |
| Explanation: effective software project management focuses on the four p’s: people, product, process, and project. | |
| 309. |
Interviews are conversations with |
| A. | fun |
| B. | purpose |
| C. | friendliness |
| D. | informality |
| Answer» B. purpose | |
| Explanation: the correct statement is: interviews are conversations with purpose. for the employer the purpose is to determine the most suitable person for the job. | |
| 310. |
A job interview is a formal meeting between a job seeker and an employer. |
| A. | true |
| B. | false |
| Answer» A. true | |
| Explanation: the statement is true. interview is a formal face-to-face meeting. a job interview is a formal meeting between a job seeker and an employer. | |
| 311. |
All job interviews have the same objective. |
| A. | true |
| B. | false |
| Answer» A. true | |
| Explanation: the statement is true. all job interviews have the same objective, but employers reach that objective in a variety of ways. | |
| 312. |
Which kind of interview includes a process in which the employability of the job applicant is evaluated? |
| A. | stress interview |
| B. | screening interview |
| C. | group interview |
| D. | behavioural interview |
| Answer» B. screening interview | |
| Explanation: in the screening interview, companies use screening tools to ensure that candidates meet minimum qualification requirements. | |
| 313. |
How many styles are used in a screening interview? |
| A. | two |
| B. | five |
| C. | three |
| D. | four |
| Answer» A. two | |
| Explanation: there are two styles used in a screening interview. they are: the directive style and the meandering style. | |
| 314. |
In which of these interviews, insults are common? |
| A. | screening interview |
| B. | stress interview |
| C. | behavioural interview |
| D. | group interview |
| Answer» B. stress interview | |
| Explanation: in stress interview, insults and miscommunication is common. all this is designed to see whether you have the mettle to withstand the company culture or other potential stress. | |
| 315. |
Which of these interviews is adapted for computer programmers? |
| A. | the stress interview |
| B. | the group interview |
| C. | the screening interview |
| D. | the audition |
| Answer» D. the audition | |
| Explanation: for some positions such as computer programmers or trainers, companies want to see you in action before they make their decision. here, the audition type is adapted. | |
| 316. |
In which of these, more than one candidate is interviewed? |
| A. | the behavioural interview |
| B. | the stress interview |
| C. | the group interview |
| D. | the audition |
| Answer» C. the group interview | |
| Explanation: in group interview, more than one candidate is interviewed. interviewing simultaneously with other candidates can be disconcerting, but it provides the company with a sense of your leadership potential and style. | |
| 317. |
Which of these interviews is taken for a candidate far away? |
| A. | lunch interview |
| B. | telephone |
| C. | stress interview |
| D. | group interview |
| Answer» B. telephone | |
| Explanation: many organizations will conduct jnterviews by telephone to narrow a field of candidates. telephone interviews may also be used as a preliminary interview for candidates who live far away. | |
| 318. |
Which of the following is the numerator of factor safety formula? |
| A. | working stress |
| B. | shear stress |
| C. | tensile stress |
| D. | ultimate stress |
| Answer» D. ultimate stress | |
| Explanation: factor of safety is defined as ratio of ultimate stress and working stress. it is also called as factor of ignorance. the factor of safety is dependent on the type of load. | |
| 319. |
Which of the following can be the factor of safety for a dead load? |
| A. | 6 |
| B. | 2 |
| C. | 4 |
| D. | 7 |
| Answer» C. 4 | |
| Explanation: for dead load, the range in which the factor of safety can lie is 4 to 5. therefore only 4 lies in that range and 6, 2, 7 are all values which are beyond that range. | |
| 320. |
Which of the following can be the factor of safety for shock loading? |
| A. | 11 |
| B. | 13 |
| C. | 4 |
| D. | 7 |
| Answer» B. 13 | |
| Explanation: for shock loading, the range in which the factor of safety can lie is 12 to 15. therefore only 13 lies in that range and 11, 4, 7 are all values which are beyond that range. | |
| 321. |
Factor of safety is used to find out the reliability of the design. |
| A. | true |
| B. | false |
| Answer» A. true | |
| Explanation: factor of safety tells us about how much load the material can take before it fails. basically, it states the load carrying capacity of a material beyond the actual load. | |
| 322. |
What can understand by the factor of safety equal to one? |
| A. | it means that the structure will fail under load |
| B. | it means that the structure will only support the actual load |
| C. | it means that the structure will support more than the actual load |
| D. | there is no relation between factor safety and load application |
| Answer» B. it means that the structure will only support the actual load | |
| Explanation: when the factor of safety is one it means that the ultimate stress is equal to the working stress and therefore the body can only support load up to actual load and no more before failing. | |
| 323. |
For which of the following design factor of safety the design will work properly? |
| A. | 0.1 |
| B. | 1 |
| C. | 2 |
| D. | 0.9 |
| Answer» C. 2 | |
| Explanation: if the design factor of safety is not more than 1 then the design may not work and will fail under certain conditions. | |
| 324. |
Design factor for most aircraft structures is 2. |
| A. | true |
| B. | false |
| Answer» B. false | |
| Explanation: the design factor of safety for most aircraft structures or components is taken to be 1.5 and not 2. more factors affect this value, but it is most of the time taken as 1.5. | |
| 325. |
Software Maintenance includes |
| A. | error corrections |
| B. | enhancements of capabilities |
| C. | deletion of obsolete capabilities |
| D. | all of the mentioned |
| Answer» D. all of the mentioned | |
| Explanation: none. | |
| 326. |
The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment, falls under which category of software maintenance? |
| A. | corrective |
| B. | adaptive |
| C. | perfective |
| D. | preventive |
| Answer» B. adaptive | |
| Explanation: none. | |
| 327. |
How many phases are there in Taute Maintenance Model? |
| A. | six |
| B. | seven |
| C. | eight |
| D. | nine |
| Answer» C. eight | |
| Explanation: none. | |
| 328. |
What type of software testing is generally used in Software Maintenance? |
| A. | regression testing |
| B. | system testing |
| C. | integration testing |
| D. | unit testing |
| Answer» A. regression testing | |
| Explanation: all other options are known as levels of software testing which further have types of software testing. | |
| 329. |
Regression testing is a very expensive activity. |
| A. | true |
| B. | false |
| Answer» A. true | |
| Explanation: as regression testing is performed many times over the life of the software product, it becomes a costly affair. | |
| 330. |
Selective retest techniques may be more economical than the “retest- all”technique.How many selective retest techniques are there? |
| A. | two |
| B. | three |
| C. | four |
| D. | five |
| Answer» B. three | |
| Explanation: the three categories include: coverage, minimization and safe techniques. | |
| 331. |
Which selective retest technique selects every test case that causes a modified program to produce a different output than its original version? |
| A. | coverage |
| B. | minimization |
| C. | safe |
| D. | maximization |
| Answer» C. safe | |
| Explanation: safe techniques do not focus on coverage criteria, instead they select every test case that cause a modified program to produce different output than its original version. | |
| 332. |
measures the ability of a regression test selection technique to handle realistic applications. |
| A. | efficiency |
| B. | precision |
| C. | generality |
| D. | inclusiveness |
| Answer» C. generality | |
| Explanation: generality measures the ability of a technique to handle realistic and diverse language constructs, arbitrarily complex modifications, and realistic testing applications. | |
| 333. |
Which regression test selection technique exposes faults caused by modifications? |
| A. | efficiency |
| B. | precision |
| C. | generality |
| D. | inclusiveness |
| Answer» D. inclusiveness | |
| Explanation: inclusiveness measures the extent to which a technique chooses test cases that will cause the modified program to produce different output than the original program, and thereby expose faults caused by modifications. | |
| 334. |
Why is Software architecture so important? |
| A. | communication among stakeholders |
| B. | early design decisions |
| C. | transferable abstraction of a system |
| D. | all of the mentioned |
| Answer» D. all of the mentioned | |
| Explanation: reasons of the architecture to be important are all the mentioned above. | |
| 335. |
Why is software architecture called vehicle for stakeholder communication? |
| A. | each stakeholder of a software system is concerned with different characteristics of the system affected by architecture |
| B. | architecture provides a common language in which different concerns can be expressed |
| C. | all of the mentioned |
| D. | none of the mentioned |
| Answer» D. none of the mentioned | |
| Explanation: all of the mentioned are correct. | |
| 336. |
Which lines depict that architecture defines constraints on an implementation? |
| A. | an implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural decisions described by the architecture |
| B. | the implementation need not be divided into prescribed components |
| C. | an implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural decisions described by the architecture and the implementation must be divided into prescribed components |
| D. | none of the mentioned |
| Answer» C. an implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural decisions described by the architecture and the implementation must be divided into prescribed components | |
| Explanation: an implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural decisions described by the architecture, the implementation must be divided into prescribed components. | |
| 337. |
Why does architecture dictates organizational structure? |
| A. | architecture describes the structure of the system being developed which becomes engraved in the development project structure |
| B. | an implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural decisions described by the architecture |
| C. | architecture may not describe structure as whole |
| D. | none of the mentioned |
| Answer» A. architecture describes the structure of the system being developed which becomes engraved in the development project structure | |
| Explanation: architecture describes the structure of the system being developed which becomes engraved in the development project structure. | |
| 338. |
Which of the following is right dependence relationship? |
| A. | performance depends on how strongly components are coupled with other components in system |
| B. | re-usability depends on the volume and complexity of the inter-component communication and coordination |
| C. | modifiability depends on system’s modularization |
| D. | all of the mentioned |
| Answer» C. modifiability depends on system’s modularization | |
| Explanation: performance depends on the volume and complexity of the inter- component communication and coordination, | |
| 339. |
Which of the following is correct for decisions made at life cycle level? |
| A. | decisions at all level of like cycle from high level design to coding, implementation affect system quality |
| B. | decisions at all level of like cycle from high level design to coding, implementation may or may not affect system quality |
| C. | decisions at all level of like cycle from high level design to coding,implementation does not affect system quality |
| D. | none of the mentioned |
| Answer» A. decisions at all level of like cycle from high level design to coding, implementation affect system quality | |
| Explanation: decisions at all level of like cycle from high level design to coding, implementation affect system quality. | |
| 340. |
Is it possible to make quality predictions about a system based solely on evaluation of its architecture? |
| A. | yes |
| B. | no |
| C. | may be |
| D. | none of the mentioned |
| Answer» A. yes | |
| Explanation: yes it is possible to make quality predictions about a system based solely on evaluation of its architecture. | |
| 341. |
Every possible architecture partition possible changes into which of the following categories? |
| A. | local |
| B. | non local |
| C. | architectural |
| D. | all of the mentioned |
| Answer» D. all of the mentioned | |
| Explanation: all of the mentioned are true. | |
| 342. |
Which change is accomplished by modifying a single component? |
| A. | a local change |
| B. | non local change |
| C. | architectural change |
| D. | all of the mentioned |
| Answer» A. a local change | |
| Explanation: a local change is accomplished by modifying a single component. | |
| 343. |
An architecture help in evolutionary prototyping in which of the following ways? |
| A. | potential performance problem can be identified early in the product’s life cycle |
| B. | the system is executable early in the product’s life cycle |
| C. | all of the mentioned |
| D. | none of the mentioned |
| Answer» C. all of the mentioned | |
| Explanation: all the mentioned are the valid ways. | |
| 344. |
Which of the following are software structures? |
| A. | module structure |
| B. | conceptual or logical structure |
| C. | process structure |
| D. | all of the mentioned |
| Answer» D. all of the mentioned | |
| Explanation: all of the mentioned are the valid structures. | |
| 345. |
Which structure describes units as abstraction of system’s functional requirements? |
| A. | conceptual structure |
| B. | module structure |
| C. | physical structure |
| D. | calls structure |
| Answer» A. conceptual structure | |
| Explanation: conceptual structure-describes units as abstraction of system’s functional requirements. | |
| 346. |
Which structure’s view is orthogonal to the module and conceptual view? |
| A. | module structure |
| B. | process structure |
| C. | uses structure |
| D. | data flow |
| Answer» B. process structure | |
| Explanation: process structure-view is orthogonal to the module and conceptual view. | |
| 347. |
Which structure’s view shows the mapping of software onto hardware? |
| A. | module structure |
| B. | process structure |
| C. | physical structure |
| D. | class structure |
| Answer» C. physical structure | |
| Explanation: physical structure- view shows the mapping of software onto hardware. | |
| 348. |
Which structure describes units are programs or module? |
| A. | calls structure |
| B. | uses structure |
| C. | data flow |
| D. | control flow |
| Answer» D. control flow | |
| Explanation: control flow-structure describes units are programs or module. | |
| 349. |
Which of the following subject area deals with pay-as-you-go usage model? |
| A. | accounting management |
| B. | compliance |
| C. | data privacy |
| D. | all of the mentioned |
| Answer» A. accounting management | |
| Explanation: for cloud computing, the pay- | |
| 350. |
Point out the correct statement. |
| A. | except for tightly managed saas cloud providers, the burden of resource management is still in the hands of the user |
| B. | cloud computing vendors run very reliable networks |
| C. | the low barrier to entry cannot be accompanied by a low barrier to provisioning |
| D. | all of the mentioned |
| Answer» B. cloud computing vendors run very reliable networks | |
| Explanation: often, cloud data is load- balanced between virtual systems and replicated between sites. | |
| 351. |
captive requires that the cloud accommodate multiple compliance regimes. |
| A. | licensed |
| B. | policy-based |
| C. | variable |
| D. | all of the mentioned |
| Answer» B. policy-based | |
| Explanation: compliance with laws and policies varies by geographical area. | |
| 352. |
Security methods such as private encryption, VLANs and firewalls comes under subject area. |
| A. | accounting management |
| B. | compliance |
| C. | data privacy |
| D. | all of the mentioned |
| Answer» C. data privacy | |
| Explanation: to ensure data privacy in the cloud, additional security methods such as private encryption, vlans, firewalls, and local storage of sensitive data are necessary. | |
| 353. |
Which of the following captive area deals with monitoring? |
| A. | licensed |
| B. | variable but under control |
| C. | low |
| D. | all of the mentioned |
| Answer» B. variable but under control | |
| Explanation: for private systems, any monitoring system the organization wishes to deploy can be brought to bear. | |
| 354. |
The reputation for cloud computing services for the quality of those services is shared by |
| A. | replicas |
| B. | shards |
| C. | tenants |
| D. | all of the mentioned |
| Answer» C. tenants | |
| Explanation: clouds often have higher reliability than private systems. | |
| 355. |
Cloud are standardized in order to appeal to the majority of its audience. |
| A. | svas |
| B. | slas |
| C. | sals |
| D. | none of the mentioned |
| Answer» B. slas | |
| Explanation: custom slas that allow for multiple data sources are difficult to obtain or enforce. | |
| 356. |
is a function of the particular enterprise and application in an on- premises deployment. |
| A. | vendor lock |
| B. | vendor lock-in |
| C. | vendor lock-ins |
| D. | none of the mentioned |
| Answer» B. vendor lock-in | |
| Explanation: vendor lock-in for a cloud computing solution in a paas model is very high. | |
| 357. |
Which of these is the external sounds present in the channels of communication? |
| A. | noise |
| B. | semantic problems |
| C. | cultural barriers |
| D. | over communication |
| Answer» A. noise | |
| Explanation: noise is the external sounds present in the channels of communication, which results in the reduction of the audibility or omission of some words from the message. | |
| 358. |
12 COMMUNICATION PLANS |
| A. | noise |
| B. | planning |
| C. | semantic problems |
| D. | wrong assumptions |
| Answer» B. planning | |
| Explanation: lack of planning must be avoided for effects communication. there are innumerable examples of people who would give an ill planned, long winding lecture while a short presentation with tables or graphs would be sufficient. | |
| 359. |
are problems arising from expression. |
| A. | cultural barriers |
| B. | semantic problems |
| C. | wrong assumptions |
| D. | selecting perception |
| Answer» B. semantic problems | |
| Explanation: the correct statement is: semantic problems are problems arising from expression or transmission of meaning in communication. | |
| 360. |
Both encoding and decoding of message are influenced by our emotions. |
| A. | true |
| B. | false |
| Answer» A. true | |
| Explanation: the statement is true. both encoding and decoding of message are influenced by our emotions. emotions play a very important role in our lives. | |
| 361. |
In which of these problems, is the actual message lost in the abundance of transmitted information? |
| A. | selecting perception |
| B. | over communication |
| C. | under communication |
| D. | filtering |
| Answer» B. over communication | |
| Explanation: in the case of over communication, the actual message is lost in | |
| 362. |
Communication should serve as a conflict- reduction exercise. |
| A. | true |
| B. | false |
| Answer» A. true | |
| Explanation: the statement is true. communication should serve as a conflict- reduction exercise. when people start competing for the fulfillment of their narrow interests communication suffers. | |
| 363. |
means to impart understanding of the message. |
| A. | encoding |
| B. | receiver |
| C. | decoding |
| D. | feedback |
| Answer» C. decoding | |
| Explanation: the correct statement is: decoding means to impart understanding of the message. receiver has to identify the person, words symbols, etc.. | |
| 364. |
When is the communication process complete? |
| A. | when the sender transmits the message |
| B. | when the message enters the channel |
| C. | when the message leaves the channel |
| D. | when the receiver understands the message. |
| Answer» D. when the receiver understands the message. | |
| Explanation: communication is complete only when the receiver understands the message. many communication problems arise because of misunderstandings. | |
| 365. |
is the first enemy of communication. |
| A. | noise |
| B. | clarity |
| C. | politeness |
| D. | completeness |
| Answer» A. noise | |
| Explanation: the correct statement is: noise is the first and foremost enemy of communication. every possible effort must be made to eliminate the element of noise that distorts communication. | |
| 366. |
Which of these must be avoided for effective communication? |
| A. | sharing of activity |
| B. | listening |
| C. | ambiguity |
| D. | politeness |
| Answer» C. ambiguity | |
| Explanation: ambiguity must be avoided. clarity and crispness of the message is very | |
| 367. |
Which of these is not a commandment of effective communication? |
| A. | clarity in language |
| B. | listen poorly |
| C. | home communication skills |
| D. | adequate medium |
| Answer» B. listen poorly | |
| Explanation: in order to ensure an effective communication one must take care of ten commandments: clarity in language, home communication skills, listen attentively, etc.. | |
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