# 360+ Software Project Management (SPM) Solved MCQs

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201.

## According to the time estimates made by the PERT planners, the maximum time that would be needed to complete an activity is called as

A. the most likely time estimate
B. optimistic time estimate
C. pessimistic time estimate
D. expected time estimate
Explanation: according to the time estimates made by the pert planners, the maximum time that would be needed to complete an activity is called the pessimistic time estimate. this estimate does not include possible effects of floods, earthquakes, etc.
202.

## In a network, a critical path is the time- wise shortest path.

A. true
B. false
Explanation: in a network, a critical path is the time-wise longest path. the critical path in the critical path method plays an essential role in scheduling and planning.
203.

## The difference between the maximum time available and the actual time needed to perform an activity is known as

A. free float
B. independent float
C. total float
D. half float
Explanation: the difference between the maximum time available and the actual time needed to perform an activity is known as the total float. hence, the total float is the excess of the maximum available time throughout the time of the activity.
204.

## A randomized algorithm uses random bits as input inorder to achieve a                             good performance over all possible choice of random bits.

A. worst case
B. best case
C. average case
D. none of the mentioned
Explanation: a randomized algorithm is an algorithm that employs a degree of randomness as a part of its logic using random bits as inputs and in hope of producing average case good performace.
205.

## Which of the following are probalistic algorithms?

A. las vegas algorithm
B. monte carlo algorithm
C. atlantic city algorithm
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» D. all of the mentioned
Explanation: monte carlo algorithms are very vast, but only probably correct. on thr other side, las vegas algorithms are always correct, but probably fast.
206.

## Which of the following algorithms are probably correct as well as fast?

A. las vegas algorithm
B. monte carlo algorithm
C. atlantic city algorithm
D. all of the mentioned
Explanation: the atlantic city algorithms which are bounded polynomial time algorithms are probably correct and probably fast. it is correct more than 75% of the times.
207.

## Prisonner’s dilemma can be related to the following:

A. cooperative behaviour
B. graph theory
C. both (a) and (b)
D. none of the mentioned
Explanation: prisonner’s dilemma is a standard example of a game analysed in game theory where rational cooperative behaviour is judged on the basis of rewards and punishment.
208.

## Unix sort command uses                    as its sorting technique.

A. quick sort
B. bucket sort
D. merge sort
Explanation: quicksort is the method of choice in many applications( unix sort command) with o(nlogn) in worst case.
209.

## Which of the following can be solved in computer science?

A. p=bpp problem
B. np=co-np problem
C. do one way problems exist?
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» D. all of the mentioned
Explanation: there exists a list of unsolved problems in computational theory which includes many problems including the ones given.
210.

## Which of the following can be referred to as applications of Randomized algorithm?

A. quicksort
B. min cut
C. verifying matrix multiplication
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» D. all of the mentioned
Explanation: freivalds algorithm is a probabalistic randomized algorithm we use to verify matrix multiplication. on the other hand, randomness can be useful in quicksort. if the algorithm selects pivot element uniformaly at random, it has a probably high probabilty of finishing the work in o(nlogn) time regardless of the input.
211.

## What is the popular method of organizing wireless network topologies?

A. software
B. synchronization
C. network
D. cluster
Explanation: clustering is a popular method of organising wireless network topologies, in which a few nodes, the cluster heads are elected as representing to route the traffic originated in the entire network.
212.

## will enable the humans to access, control and manage the operation.

A. iot
B. bigdata
C. network
D. communication
Explanation: iot enables the humans to access, control and manage the operations
213.

## In                    the embedded devices and objects working under IoT are resource constrained.

A. health
B. industry
C. home
D. information system
Explanation: in the information system the embedded devices and objects working under iot implementation are resource constrained.
214.

## What type of networks is interacting under IoT?

A. heterogeneous only
B. homogeneous only
C. both hetero and homogeneous
D. neither hetero nor ho*mo
Explanation: due to the huge number of heterogeneous network elements interacting and working under iot based information systems, there is an enormous need for resource management for the smooth running of iot operations.
215.

## Managing of resources can be done by implementing

A. protocols
B. algorithms
C. networks
D. protocols and algorithms
Explanation: managing of resources by implementing protocols, algorithms or techniques is required to enhance the scalability, reliability and stability in the operations of iot across different domains of technology.
216.

## Resource management will elaborate the key aspects of

A. industrial management
B. energy management
C. network management
D. information management
Explanation: resource management will elaborate the key aspects of energy management, communication protocols and
217.

## Which of the following is the future application of IoT?

A. role of green iot system
B. qos in communication
C. secure communication
D. multimedia communication
Answer» A. role of green iot system
Explanation: future applications of iot:
218.

## Resource management includes

A. iot devices
B. iot cloud
C. iot networks
D. iot web
Explanation: resource management includes iot cloud, iot based industrial and home environment and integration of iot concept in upcoming technologies of cyber physical system, ambient living and fog computing.
219.

## What is the role of communication protocol in IoT?

A. smart cities
B. cyber physical system
C. mac layer issue
D. managing energy
Explanation: role of communication protocol in iot :
220.

## Which will reduce the energy expenditure?

A. clustering
B. software agents
C. synchronization techniques
D. cluster, software agent, and synchronization techniques
Explanation: clustering will be beneficial to reduce the energy expenditure and improve the scalability and robustness of the object networks.
221.

## Synchronization techniques will be necessary to address the various challenges of harmonising.

A. false
B. true
Explanation: synchronization techniques will be necessary to address the various challenges of harmonising plenty of copies of object data with potentially partially disconnected internet of things architecture components.
222.

## Architectural design is a creative process satisfying only functional-requirements of a system.

A. true
B. false
Explanation: in architectural design you design a system organization satisfying the functional and non-functional requirements of a system.
223.

## A                  view shows the system hardware and how software components are distributed across the processors in the system.

A. physical
B. logical
C. process
D. all of the mentioned
Explanation: a physical view is implemented by system engineers implementing the system hardware.
224.

## The UML was designed for describing

A. object-oriented systems
B. architectural design
C. srs
D. both object-oriented systems and architectural design
Answer» D. both object-oriented systems and architectural design
Explanation: the uml was designed for describing object-oriented systems and, at the architectural design stage, you often want to describe systems at a higher level of abstraction.
225.

## Which of the following is an architectural conflict?

A. using large-grain components improves performance but reduces maintainability
B. introducing redundant data improves availability but makes security more difficult
C. localizing safety-related features usually means more communication so degraded performance
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» D. all of the mentioned
Explanation: high availability architecture can be affected by several design factors that are required to be maintained to ensure that no single points of failure exist in such design.
226.

## Which of the following is not included in Architectural design decisions?

A. type of application
B. distribution of the system
C. architectural styles
D. testing the system
Explanation: architectural design decisions include decisions on the type of application, the distribution of the system, the architectural styles to be used, and the ways in which the architecture should be documented and evaluated.
227.

## Architecture once established can be applied to other products as well.

A. true
B. false
Explanation: systems in the same domain often have similar architectures that reflect domain concepts.
228.

## Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web- based systems?

A. architecture
B. repository pattern
C. model-view-controller
D. different operating system
Explanation: model-view-controller pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web-based systems.
229.

## What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?

A. model-view-controller
B. architecture pattern
C. repository pattern
D. none of the mentioned
Explanation: the majority of systems that use large amounts of data are organized around a shared database or repository.
230.

## Which view in architectural design shows the key abstractions in the system as objects or object classes?

A. physical
B. development
C. logical
D. process
Explanation: it is possible to relate the system requirements to entities in a logical view.
231.

## Which of the following is a type of Architectural Model?

A. static structural model
B. dynamic process model
C. distribution model
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» D. all of the mentioned
Explanation: all these models reflects the
232.

## Why is decomposition technique required?

A. software project estimation is a form of problem solving
B. developing a cost and effort estimate for a software project is too complex
C. all of the mentioned
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» C. all of the mentioned
Explanation: for these reasons, we decompose the problem, re-characterizing it as a set of smaller problems.
233.

## Cost and effort estimation of a software uses only one forms of decomposition, either decomposition of the problem or decomposition of the process.

A. true
B. false
Explanation: estimation uses one or both forms of partitioning.
234.

## If a Direct approach to software project sizing is taken, size can be measured in

A. loc
B. fp
C. loc and fp
D. none of the mentioned
Explanation: loc or line of code is a direct measure to estimate project size.
235.

## Which software project sizing approach develop estimates of the information domain characteristics?

A. function point sizing
B. change sizing
C. standard component sizing
D. fuzzy logic sizing
Explanation: none.
236.

## How many forms exists of Barry Boehm’s COCOMO Model?

A. two
B. three
C. four
D. no form exists
Explanation: the three forms include the basic, intermediate and advanced cocomo model.
237.

## Who suggested the four different approaches to the sizing problem?

A. putnam
B. myers
C. boehm
D. putnam and myers
Explanation: none.
238.

## In many cases, it is often more cost- effective to acquire, rather than develop, computer software.

A. true
B. false
Explanation: managers are faced with a make-buy decision in such situations.
239.

## A make-buy decision is based on whether

A. the software may be purchased off-the- shelf
B. “full-experience” or “partial-experience” software components should be used
C. customer-built software should be developed
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» D. all of the mentioned
Explanation: none..
240.

## Which of the following is not one of the five information domain characteristics of Function Point (FP) decomposition?

A. external inputs
B. external outputs
C. external process
D. external inquiries
Explanation: external inputs, external outputs, external inquiries, internal logical files, external interface files are the five domains.
241.

## The project planner must reconcile the estimates based on decomposition techniques to produce a single estimate of effort.

A. true
B. false
Explanation: the planner must determine the cause of divergence and then reconcile the estimates.
242.

## Programming language experience is a part of which factor of COCOMO cost drivers?

A. personnel factor
B. product factor
C. platform factor
D. project factor
Explanation: none.
243.

## If an Indirect approach is taken, then the sizing approach is represented as

A. loc
B. fp
C. fuzzy logic
D. loc and fp
Explanation: a function point (fp) is a unit of measurement to express the amount of business functionality an information system provides to a user.
244.

## Project management involves the planning, monitoring, and control of the people, process, and events that occur as software evolves from a preliminary concept to an operational implementation.

A. true
B. false
Explanation: none.
245.

## 2 COLLECTION OF DATA

A. people
B. product
C. popularity
D. process
Explanation: effective software project management focuses on the four p’s: people, product, process, and project.
246.

## PM-CMM stands for

A. people management capability maturity model
B. process management capability maturity model
C. product management capability maturity model
D. project management capability maturity model
Answer» A. people management capability maturity model
Explanation: the people management maturity model defines the following key practice areas for software people: recruiting, selection, performance management, training, compensation, career development, organization and work design, and team/culture development.
247.

## Which of the following is not a project manager’s activity?

A. project control
B. project management
C. project planning
D. project design
Explanation: the design part of any project management is done by the project team.
248.

## A software                  provides the framework from which a comprehensive plan for software development can be established.

A. people
B. product
C. process
D. none of the mentioned
Explanation: a small number of framework activities are applicable to all software projects, regardless of their size or complexity.
249.

## Who defines the business issues that often have significant influence on the project?

A. practitioners
B. project managers
C. senior managers
D. none of the mentioned
Explanation: none.
250.

## Who delivers the technical skills that are necessary to engineer a product or an application?

A. practitioners
B. project managers
C. senior managers
D. none of the mentioned
Explanation: none.
251.

## Which of the following paradigm attempts to structure a team in a manner that achieves some of the controls associated with the closed paradigm but also much of the innovation that occurs when using the random paradigm?

Explanation: open paradigm team structures are well suited to the solution of complex problems but may not perform as efficiently as other teams.
252.

## Which of the following is a people- intensive activity?

A. problem solving
B. organization
C. motivation
D. project management
Explanation: for this reason, competent practitioners often make poor team leaders.
253.

## Which paradigm structures a team loosely and depends on individual initiative of the team members?

Explanation: none.
254.

## Which of the following is not an approach to software cost estimation?

A. empirical
B. heuristic
C. analytical
D. critical
Explanation: critical is no such standard approach of cost estimation.
255.

## Which paradigm relies on the natural compartmentalization of a problem and organizes team members to work on pieces of the problem with little active communication among themselves?

Explanation: none.
256.

## Who interacts with the software once it is released for production use?

A. end-users
B. client
C. project (technical) managers
D. senior managers
Explanation: a product is always built to satisfy an end-user.
257.

## Which of the following is not an effective project manager trait?

A. problem solving
B. managerial identity
C. influence and team building
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» D. none of the mentioned
Explanation: all are key traits of an effective project manager.
258.

## Which type of software engineering team has a defined leader who coordinates specific tasks and secondary leaders that have responsibility for sub tasks?

A. controlled decentralized (cd)
B. democratic decentralized (dd)
C. controlled centralized (cc)
D. none of the mentioned
Explanation: problem solving remains a group activity, but implementation of solutions is partitioned among subgroups by the team leader.
259.

## Commitments to unrealistic time and resource estimates may result in

A. project delay
B. poor quality work
C. project failure
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» D. all of the mentioned
Explanation: none.
260.

## Which software engineering team has no permanent leader?

A. controlled decentralized (cd)
B. democratic decentralized (dd)
C. controlled centralized (cc)
D. none of the mentioned
Explanation: here communication among team members is horizontal.
261.

## Which of the following is not a project factor that should be considered when planning the structure of software engineering teams?

A. the difficulty of the problem to be solved
B. high frustration caused by personal, business, or technological factors that causes friction among team members
C. the degree of sociability required for the project
D. the rigidity of the delivery date
Answer» C. the degree of sociability required for the project
Explanation: development is irrelevant of social quotient.
262.

## Which of the following is a collection of project coordination technique?

A. formal approaches
B. formal, interpersonal procedures
C. informal, interpersonal procedures
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» D. all of the mentioned
Explanation: none.
263.

## Which activity sits at the core of software requirements analysis?

A. problem decomposition
B. partitioning
C. problem elaboration
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» D. all of the mentioned
Explanation: during the scoping activity decomposition is applied in two major areas:
264.

## Which of the following is not a sign that indicates that an information systems project is in jeopardy?

A. software people don’t understand their customers needs
B. changes are managed poorly
D. users are resistant
Explanation: other options are contradictory to the question.
265.

## SPMP stands for

A. software project manager’s plan
B. software project management plan
C. software product management plan
D. software product manager’s plan
Answer» B. software project management plan
Explanation: after planning is complete, documenting of the plans is done in a software project management plan(spmp) document.
266.

## Which of the following categories is part of the output of software process?

A. computer programs
B. documents that describe the computer programs
C. data
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» D. all of the mentioned
Explanation: none
267.

## 4 COST MONITORING

A. baselines
B. source code
C. data model
D. none of the mentioned
Explanation: a baseline is analogous to the kitchen doors in the restaurant. before a software configuration item becomes a baseline, change may be made quickly and informally.
268.

## Software Configuration Management can be administered in several ways. These include

A. a single software configuration management team for the whole organization
B. a separate configuration management team for each project
C. software configuration management distributed among the project members
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» A. a single software configuration management team for the whole organization
Explanation: none
269.

## What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration objects that are created during the software process?

A. change control
B. version control
C. scis
D. none of the mentioned
Explanation: configuration management allows a user to specify alternative configurations of the software system through the selection of appropriate versions.
270.

## What complements the formal technical review by assessing a configuration object for characteristics that are generally not considered during review?

A. software configuration audit
B. software configuration management
C. baseline
D. none of the mentioned
Explanation: none.
271.

## Which of the following is the process of assembling program components, data, and libraries, and then compiling and linking these to create an executable system?

A. system building
B. release management
C. change management
D. version management
Explanation: none.
272.

## Which of the following option is not tracked by configuration management tools?

A. tracking of change proposals
B. storing versions of system components
C. tracking the releases of system versions to customers
D. none of the mentioned
Answer» D. none of the mentioned
Explanation: all the options are tracked.
273.

## Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?

A. configuration item identification
B. risk management
C. release management
D. branch management
Explanation: risk management is an entirely different domain.
274.

## The definition and use of configuration management standards is essential for quality certification in

A. iso 9000
B. cmm
C. cmmi
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» D. all of the mentioned
Explanation: it is defined in all the mentioned options.
275.

## What involves preparing software for external release and keeping track of the system versions that have been released for customer use?

A. system building
B. release management
C. change management
D. version management
Explanation: none.
276.

## Which of the following process ensures that versions of systems and components are recorded and maintained?

A. codeline
B. configuration control
C. version
D. workspace
Explanation: in configuration control changes are managed and all versions of components are identified and stored for the lifetime.
277.

## Which of the following process is concerned with analyzing the costs and benefits of proposed changes?

A. change management
B. version management
C. system building
D. release management
Explanation: it involves approving those changes that are worthwhile, and tracking
278.

## Which of the following is not a Version management feature?

A. version and release identification
B. build script generation
C. project support
D. change history recording
Explanation: all other options are a part of version management.
279.

## Which method recommends that very frequent system builds should be carried out with automated testing to discover software problems?

A. agile method
B. parallel compilation method
C. large systems method
D. all of the mentioned
Explanation: in keeping with the agile methods notion of making many small changes, continuous integration involves rebuilding the mainline frequently, after small source code changes have been made.
280.

## Which of the following is not a build system feature?

A. minimal recompilation
B. documentation generation
C. storage management
D. reporting
Explanation: to reduce the storage space required by multiple versions of components that differ only slightly, version management systems usually provide storage management facilities.
281.

## Which of the following is a configuration item?

A. design & test specification
B. source code
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» D. all of the mentioned
Explanation: a configuration item is an approved and accepted deliverable, changes have to be made through formal procedure.
282.

## Which of the following is a part of system release?

A. electronic and paper documentation describing the system
B. packaging and associated publicity that have been designed for that release
C. an installation program that is used to help install the system on target hardware
D. all of the mentioned
Answer» D. all of the mentioned
Explanation: release creation is the process of creating the collection of files and documentation that includes all of the components of the system release.
283.

## A sequence of baselines representing different versions of a system is known as

A. system building
B. mainline
C. software configuration item(sci)
D. none of the mentioned
Explanation: none.
284.

## “Robustness” answers which of the following description?

A. case tools be used to support the process activities
B. process errors are avoided or trapped before they result in product errors
C. defined process is acceptable and usable by the engineers responsible for producing the software
D. process continues in spite of unexpected problems
Answer» D. process continues in spite of unexpected problems
Explanation: none.
285.

## Process improvement is the set of activities, methods, and transformations that developers use to develop and maintain information systems.

A. true
B. false
Explanation: the definition is of a system development process.
286.

## How many stages are there in process improvement?

A. three
B. four
C. five
D. six
Explanation: process measurement, analysis and change are the three stages.
287.

## In which stage of process improvement bottlenecks and weaknesses are identified?

A. process measurement
B. process analysis
C. process change
D. none of the mentioned
Explanation: in process analysis the current process is assessed and bottlenecks and weaknesses are identified.
288.

## Prototypes and 4GL business systems are categorized under which process?

A. informal
B. managed
C. methodical
D. supported
Explanation: here the development team chose their own way of working.
289.

## The documentation of a process which records the tasks, the roles and the entities used is called

A. process metric
B. process analysis
C. process modelling
D. none of the mentioned
Explanation: process models may be presented from different perspectives.
290.

## It is always best to start process analysis with a new test model.

A. true
B. false
Explanation: it is always best to start process analysis with an existing model. people then may extend and change this.
291.

## What is a tangible output of an activity that is predicted in a project plan?

A. deliverable
B. activity
C. condition
D. process
Explanation: none.
292.

## What is often undefined and is left to the ingenuity of the project managers and engineers?

A. role
B. exception
C. activity
D. process
Explanation: exceptions are often undefined and it is left to the ingenuity of the project managers and engineers to handle the exception.
293.

## Which of the following is not a part of process change?

A. introducing new practices, methods or processes
B. introducing new team members to existing project
C. introducing or removing deliverable
D. introducing new roles or responsibilities
Answer» B. introducing new team members to existing project
Explanation: adding more developers aid to process completion rather than changing it.
294.

## The Capability Maturity Model (CMM) is a continuous model.

A. true
B. false
Explanation: the cmm is discrete rather than continuous.
295.

## The CMMI assessment is based on a x- point scale. What is the value of x?

A. 0
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
Explanation: not performed, performed, managed, defined, quantitatively managed, and optimizing are the six points.
296.

## CM is about managing the different items in the product, and changes in them.

A. true
B. false
Explanation: none.
297.

## Which is a software configuration management concept that helps us to control change without seriously impeding justifiable change?

A. baselines
B. source code
C. data model
D. none of the mentioned
Explanation: a baseline is analogous to the kitchen doors in the restaurant. before a software configuration item becomes a baseline, change may be made quickly and informally.
298.

## A voluntary arrangement between two or more parties that is enforceable by law as a binding legal agreement is known as

A. job
B. loan
C. contract
D. mutual fund
Explanation: a contract arises when the parties agree that there is an agreement. formation of a contract generally requires an offer, acceptance, consideration, and a mutual intent to be bound. each party to a contract must have capacity to enter the agreement.
299.

## What is the type of mistake which occurs when only one party to a contract is mistaken as to the terms or subject-matter?

A. mutual mistake
B. unilateral mistake
C. bilateral mistake
D. individual mistake
Explanation: the courts will uphold such a contract unless it was determined that the non-mistaken party was aware of the mistake and tried to take advantage of the mistake. it is also possible for a contract to be void if there was a mistake in the identity of the contracting party. an example is in lewis v.
300.

A. uniform
B. evergreen
C. moderate
D. on-demand