McqMate
| 201. |
According to the time estimates made by the PERT planners, the maximum time that would be needed to complete an activity is called as |
| A. | the most likely time estimate |
| B. | optimistic time estimate |
| C. | pessimistic time estimate |
| D. | expected time estimate |
| Answer» C. pessimistic time estimate | |
| Explanation: according to the time estimates made by the pert planners, the maximum time that would be needed to complete an activity is called the pessimistic time estimate. this estimate does not include possible effects of floods, earthquakes, etc. | |
| 202. |
In a network, a critical path is the time- wise shortest path. |
| A. | true |
| B. | false |
| Answer» B. false | |
| Explanation: in a network, a critical path is the time-wise longest path. the critical path in the critical path method plays an essential role in scheduling and planning. | |
| 203. |
The difference between the maximum time available and the actual time needed to perform an activity is known as |
| A. | free float |
| B. | independent float |
| C. | total float |
| D. | half float |
| Answer» C. total float | |
| Explanation: the difference between the maximum time available and the actual time needed to perform an activity is known as the total float. hence, the total float is the excess of the maximum available time throughout the time of the activity. | |
| 204. |
A randomized algorithm uses random bits as input inorder to achieve a good performance over all possible choice of random bits. |
| A. | worst case |
| B. | best case |
| C. | average case |
| D. | none of the mentioned |
| Answer» C. average case | |
| Explanation: a randomized algorithm is an algorithm that employs a degree of randomness as a part of its logic using random bits as inputs and in hope of producing average case good performace. | |
| 205. |
Which of the following are probalistic algorithms? |
| A. | las vegas algorithm |
| B. | monte carlo algorithm |
| C. | atlantic city algorithm |
| D. | all of the mentioned |
| Answer» D. all of the mentioned | |
| Explanation: monte carlo algorithms are very vast, but only probably correct. on thr other side, las vegas algorithms are always correct, but probably fast. | |
| 206. |
Which of the following algorithms are probably correct as well as fast? |
| A. | las vegas algorithm |
| B. | monte carlo algorithm |
| C. | atlantic city algorithm |
| D. | all of the mentioned |
| Answer» C. atlantic city algorithm | |
| Explanation: the atlantic city algorithms which are bounded polynomial time algorithms are probably correct and probably fast. it is correct more than 75% of the times. | |
| 207. |
Prisonner’s dilemma can be related to the following: |
| A. | cooperative behaviour |
| B. | graph theory |
| C. | both (a) and (b) |
| D. | none of the mentioned |
| Answer» A. cooperative behaviour | |
| Explanation: prisonner’s dilemma is a standard example of a game analysed in game theory where rational cooperative behaviour is judged on the basis of rewards and punishment. | |
| 208. |
Unix sort command uses as its sorting technique. |
| A. | quick sort |
| B. | bucket sort |
| C. | radix sort |
| D. | merge sort |
| Answer» A. quick sort | |
| Explanation: quicksort is the method of choice in many applications( unix sort command) with o(nlogn) in worst case. | |
| 209. |
Which of the following can be solved in computer science? |
| A. | p=bpp problem |
| B. | np=co-np problem |
| C. | do one way problems exist? |
| D. | all of the mentioned |
| Answer» D. all of the mentioned | |
| Explanation: there exists a list of unsolved problems in computational theory which includes many problems including the ones given. | |
| 210. |
Which of the following can be referred to as applications of Randomized algorithm? |
| A. | quicksort |
| B. | min cut |
| C. | verifying matrix multiplication |
| D. | all of the mentioned |
| Answer» D. all of the mentioned | |
| Explanation: freivalds algorithm is a probabalistic randomized algorithm we use to verify matrix multiplication. on the other hand, randomness can be useful in quicksort. if the algorithm selects pivot element uniformaly at random, it has a probably high probabilty of finishing the work in o(nlogn) time regardless of the input. | |
| 211. |
What is the popular method of organizing wireless network topologies? |
| A. | software |
| B. | synchronization |
| C. | network |
| D. | cluster |
| Answer» D. cluster | |
| Explanation: clustering is a popular method of organising wireless network topologies, in which a few nodes, the cluster heads are elected as representing to route the traffic originated in the entire network. | |
| 212. |
will enable the humans to access, control and manage the operation. |
| A. | iot |
| B. | bigdata |
| C. | network |
| D. | communication |
| Answer» A. iot | |
| Explanation: iot enables the humans to access, control and manage the operations | |
| 213. |
In the embedded devices and objects working under IoT are resource constrained. |
| A. | health |
| B. | industry |
| C. | home |
| D. | information system |
| Answer» D. information system | |
| Explanation: in the information system the embedded devices and objects working under iot implementation are resource constrained. | |
| 214. |
What type of networks is interacting under IoT? |
| A. | heterogeneous only |
| B. | homogeneous only |
| C. | both hetero and homogeneous |
| D. | neither hetero nor ho*mo |
| Answer» A. heterogeneous only | |
| Explanation: due to the huge number of heterogeneous network elements interacting and working under iot based information systems, there is an enormous need for resource management for the smooth running of iot operations. | |
| 215. |
Managing of resources can be done by implementing |
| A. | protocols |
| B. | algorithms |
| C. | networks |
| D. | protocols and algorithms |
| Answer» D. protocols and algorithms | |
| Explanation: managing of resources by implementing protocols, algorithms or techniques is required to enhance the scalability, reliability and stability in the operations of iot across different domains of technology. | |
| 216. |
Resource management will elaborate the key aspects of |
| A. | industrial management |
| B. | energy management |
| C. | network management |
| D. | information management |
| Answer» C. network management | |
| Explanation: resource management will elaborate the key aspects of energy management, communication protocols and | |
| 217. |
Which of the following is the future application of IoT? |
| A. | role of green iot system |
| B. | qos in communication |
| C. | secure communication |
| D. | multimedia communication |
| Answer» A. role of green iot system | |
| Explanation: future applications of iot: | |
| 218. |
Resource management includes |
| A. | iot devices |
| B. | iot cloud |
| C. | iot networks |
| D. | iot web |
| Answer» B. iot cloud | |
| Explanation: resource management includes iot cloud, iot based industrial and home environment and integration of iot concept in upcoming technologies of cyber physical system, ambient living and fog computing. | |
| 219. |
What is the role of communication protocol in IoT? |
| A. | smart cities |
| B. | cyber physical system |
| C. | mac layer issue |
| D. | managing energy |
| Answer» C. mac layer issue | |
| Explanation: role of communication protocol in iot : | |
| 220. |
Which will reduce the energy expenditure? |
| A. | clustering |
| B. | software agents |
| C. | synchronization techniques |
| D. | cluster, software agent, and synchronization techniques |
| Answer» A. clustering | |
| Explanation: clustering will be beneficial to reduce the energy expenditure and improve the scalability and robustness of the object networks. | |
| 221. |
Synchronization techniques will be necessary to address the various challenges of harmonising. |
| A. | false |
| B. | true |
| Answer» B. true | |
| Explanation: synchronization techniques will be necessary to address the various challenges of harmonising plenty of copies of object data with potentially partially disconnected internet of things architecture components. | |
| 222. |
Architectural design is a creative process satisfying only functional-requirements of a system. |
| A. | true |
| B. | false |
| Answer» B. false | |
| Explanation: in architectural design you design a system organization satisfying the functional and non-functional requirements of a system. | |
| 223. |
A view shows the system hardware and how software components are distributed across the processors in the system. |
| A. | physical |
| B. | logical |
| C. | process |
| D. | all of the mentioned |
| Answer» A. physical | |
| Explanation: a physical view is implemented by system engineers implementing the system hardware. | |
| 224. |
The UML was designed for describing |
| A. | object-oriented systems |
| B. | architectural design |
| C. | srs |
| D. | both object-oriented systems and architectural design |
| Answer» D. both object-oriented systems and architectural design | |
| Explanation: the uml was designed for describing object-oriented systems and, at the architectural design stage, you often want to describe systems at a higher level of abstraction. | |
| 225. |
Which of the following is an architectural conflict? |
| A. | using large-grain components improves performance but reduces maintainability |
| B. | introducing redundant data improves availability but makes security more difficult |
| C. | localizing safety-related features usually means more communication so degraded performance |
| D. | all of the mentioned |
| Answer» D. all of the mentioned | |
| Explanation: high availability architecture can be affected by several design factors that are required to be maintained to ensure that no single points of failure exist in such design. | |
| 226. |
Which of the following is not included in Architectural design decisions? |
| A. | type of application |
| B. | distribution of the system |
| C. | architectural styles |
| D. | testing the system |
| Answer» D. testing the system | |
| Explanation: architectural design decisions include decisions on the type of application, the distribution of the system, the architectural styles to be used, and the ways in which the architecture should be documented and evaluated. | |
| 227. |
Architecture once established can be applied to other products as well. |
| A. | true |
| B. | false |
| Answer» B. false | |
| Explanation: systems in the same domain often have similar architectures that reflect domain concepts. | |
| 228. |
Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web- based systems? |
| A. | architecture |
| B. | repository pattern |
| C. | model-view-controller |
| D. | different operating system |
| Answer» C. model-view-controller | |
| Explanation: model-view-controller pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web-based systems. | |
| 229. |
What describes how a set of interacting components can share data? |
| A. | model-view-controller |
| B. | architecture pattern |
| C. | repository pattern |
| D. | none of the mentioned |
| Answer» C. repository pattern | |
| Explanation: the majority of systems that use large amounts of data are organized around a shared database or repository. | |
| 230. |
Which view in architectural design shows the key abstractions in the system as objects or object classes? |
| A. | physical |
| B. | development |
| C. | logical |
| D. | process |
| Answer» C. logical | |
| Explanation: it is possible to relate the system requirements to entities in a logical view. | |
| 231. |
Which of the following is a type of Architectural Model? |
| A. | static structural model |
| B. | dynamic process model |
| C. | distribution model |
| D. | all of the mentioned |
| Answer» D. all of the mentioned | |
| Explanation: all these models reflects the | |
| 232. |
Why is decomposition technique required? |
| A. | software project estimation is a form of problem solving |
| B. | developing a cost and effort estimate for a software project is too complex |
| C. | all of the mentioned |
| D. | none of the mentioned |
| Answer» C. all of the mentioned | |
| Explanation: for these reasons, we decompose the problem, re-characterizing it as a set of smaller problems. | |
| 233. |
Cost and effort estimation of a software uses only one forms of decomposition, either decomposition of the problem or decomposition of the process. |
| A. | true |
| B. | false |
| Answer» B. false | |
| Explanation: estimation uses one or both forms of partitioning. | |
| 234. |
If a Direct approach to software project sizing is taken, size can be measured in |
| A. | loc |
| B. | fp |
| C. | loc and fp |
| D. | none of the mentioned |
| Answer» A. loc | |
| Explanation: loc or line of code is a direct measure to estimate project size. | |
| 235. |
Which software project sizing approach develop estimates of the information domain characteristics? |
| A. | function point sizing |
| B. | change sizing |
| C. | standard component sizing |
| D. | fuzzy logic sizing |
| Answer» A. function point sizing | |
| Explanation: none. | |
| 236. |
How many forms exists of Barry Boehm’s COCOMO Model? |
| A. | two |
| B. | three |
| C. | four |
| D. | no form exists |
| Answer» B. three | |
| Explanation: the three forms include the basic, intermediate and advanced cocomo model. | |
| 237. |
Who suggested the four different approaches to the sizing problem? |
| A. | putnam |
| B. | myers |
| C. | boehm |
| D. | putnam and myers |
| Answer» D. putnam and myers | |
| Explanation: none. | |
| 238. |
In many cases, it is often more cost- effective to acquire, rather than develop, computer software. |
| A. | true |
| B. | false |
| Answer» A. true | |
| Explanation: managers are faced with a make-buy decision in such situations. | |
| 239. |
A make-buy decision is based on whether |
| A. | the software may be purchased off-the- shelf |
| B. | “full-experience” or “partial-experience” software components should be used |
| C. | customer-built software should be developed |
| D. | all of the mentioned |
| Answer» D. all of the mentioned | |
| Explanation: none.. | |
| 240. |
Which of the following is not one of the five information domain characteristics of Function Point (FP) decomposition? |
| A. | external inputs |
| B. | external outputs |
| C. | external process |
| D. | external inquiries |
| Answer» C. external process | |
| Explanation: external inputs, external outputs, external inquiries, internal logical files, external interface files are the five domains. | |
| 241. |
The project planner must reconcile the estimates based on decomposition techniques to produce a single estimate of effort. |
| A. | true |
| B. | false |
| Answer» B. false | |
| Explanation: the planner must determine the cause of divergence and then reconcile the estimates. | |
| 242. |
Programming language experience is a part of which factor of COCOMO cost drivers? |
| A. | personnel factor |
| B. | product factor |
| C. | platform factor |
| D. | project factor |
| Answer» A. personnel factor | |
| Explanation: none. | |
| 243. |
If an Indirect approach is taken, then the sizing approach is represented as |
| A. | loc |
| B. | fp |
| C. | fuzzy logic |
| D. | loc and fp |
| Answer» B. fp | |
| Explanation: a function point (fp) is a unit of measurement to express the amount of business functionality an information system provides to a user. | |
| 244. |
Project management involves the planning, monitoring, and control of the people, process, and events that occur as software evolves from a preliminary concept to an operational implementation. |
| A. | true |
| B. | false |
| Answer» A. true | |
| Explanation: none. | |
| 245. |
2 COLLECTION OF DATA |
| A. | people |
| B. | product |
| C. | popularity |
| D. | process |
| Answer» C. popularity | |
| Explanation: effective software project management focuses on the four p’s: people, product, process, and project. | |
| 246. |
PM-CMM stands for |
| A. | people management capability maturity model |
| B. | process management capability maturity model |
| C. | product management capability maturity model |
| D. | project management capability maturity model |
| Answer» A. people management capability maturity model | |
| Explanation: the people management maturity model defines the following key practice areas for software people: recruiting, selection, performance management, training, compensation, career development, organization and work design, and team/culture development. | |
| 247. |
Which of the following is not a project manager’s activity? |
| A. | project control |
| B. | project management |
| C. | project planning |
| D. | project design |
| Answer» D. project design | |
| Explanation: the design part of any project management is done by the project team. | |
| 248. |
A software provides the framework from which a comprehensive plan for software development can be established. |
| A. | people |
| B. | product |
| C. | process |
| D. | none of the mentioned |
| Answer» C. process | |
| Explanation: a small number of framework activities are applicable to all software projects, regardless of their size or complexity. | |
| 249. |
Who defines the business issues that often have significant influence on the project? |
| A. | practitioners |
| B. | project managers |
| C. | senior managers |
| D. | none of the mentioned |
| Answer» C. senior managers | |
| Explanation: none. | |
| 250. |
Who delivers the technical skills that are necessary to engineer a product or an application? |
| A. | practitioners |
| B. | project managers |
| C. | senior managers |
| D. | none of the mentioned |
| Answer» A. practitioners | |
| Explanation: none. | |
| 251. |
Which of the following paradigm attempts to structure a team in a manner that achieves some of the controls associated with the closed paradigm but also much of the innovation that occurs when using the random paradigm? |
| A. | asynchronous paradigm |
| B. | open paradigm |
| C. | closed paradigm |
| D. | synchronous paradigm |
| Answer» B. open paradigm | |
| Explanation: open paradigm team structures are well suited to the solution of complex problems but may not perform as efficiently as other teams. | |
| 252. |
Which of the following is a people- intensive activity? |
| A. | problem solving |
| B. | organization |
| C. | motivation |
| D. | project management |
| Answer» D. project management | |
| Explanation: for this reason, competent practitioners often make poor team leaders. | |
| 253. |
Which paradigm structures a team loosely and depends on individual initiative of the team members? |
| A. | random paradigm |
| B. | open paradigm |
| C. | closed paradigm |
| D. | synchronous paradigm |
| Answer» D. synchronous paradigm | |
| Explanation: none. | |
| 254. |
Which of the following is not an approach to software cost estimation? |
| A. | empirical |
| B. | heuristic |
| C. | analytical |
| D. | critical |
| Answer» D. critical | |
| Explanation: critical is no such standard approach of cost estimation. | |
| 255. |
Which paradigm relies on the natural compartmentalization of a problem and organizes team members to work on pieces of the problem with little active communication among themselves? |
| A. | random paradigm |
| B. | open paradigm |
| C. | closed paradigm |
| D. | synchronous paradigm |
| Answer» C. closed paradigm | |
| Explanation: none. | |
| 256. |
Who interacts with the software once it is released for production use? |
| A. | end-users |
| B. | client |
| C. | project (technical) managers |
| D. | senior managers |
| Answer» A. end-users | |
| Explanation: a product is always built to satisfy an end-user. | |
| 257. |
Which of the following is not an effective project manager trait? |
| A. | problem solving |
| B. | managerial identity |
| C. | influence and team building |
| D. | none of the mentioned |
| Answer» D. none of the mentioned | |
| Explanation: all are key traits of an effective project manager. | |
| 258. |
Which type of software engineering team has a defined leader who coordinates specific tasks and secondary leaders that have responsibility for sub tasks? |
| A. | controlled decentralized (cd) |
| B. | democratic decentralized (dd) |
| C. | controlled centralized (cc) |
| D. | none of the mentioned |
| Answer» A. controlled decentralized (cd) | |
| Explanation: problem solving remains a group activity, but implementation of solutions is partitioned among subgroups by the team leader. | |
| 259. |
Commitments to unrealistic time and resource estimates may result in |
| A. | project delay |
| B. | poor quality work |
| C. | project failure |
| D. | all of the mentioned |
| Answer» D. all of the mentioned | |
| Explanation: none. | |
| 260. |
Which software engineering team has no permanent leader? |
| A. | controlled decentralized (cd) |
| B. | democratic decentralized (dd) |
| C. | controlled centralized (cc) |
| D. | none of the mentioned |
| Answer» B. democratic decentralized (dd) | |
| Explanation: here communication among team members is horizontal. | |
| 261. |
Which of the following is not a project factor that should be considered when planning the structure of software engineering teams? |
| A. | the difficulty of the problem to be solved |
| B. | high frustration caused by personal, business, or technological factors that causes friction among team members |
| C. | the degree of sociability required for the project |
| D. | the rigidity of the delivery date |
| Answer» C. the degree of sociability required for the project | |
| Explanation: development is irrelevant of social quotient. | |
| 262. |
Which of the following is a collection of project coordination technique? |
| A. | formal approaches |
| B. | formal, interpersonal procedures |
| C. | informal, interpersonal procedures |
| D. | all of the mentioned |
| Answer» D. all of the mentioned | |
| Explanation: none. | |
| 263. |
Which activity sits at the core of software requirements analysis? |
| A. | problem decomposition |
| B. | partitioning |
| C. | problem elaboration |
| D. | all of the mentioned |
| Answer» D. all of the mentioned | |
| Explanation: during the scoping activity decomposition is applied in two major areas: | |
| 264. |
Which of the following is not a sign that indicates that an information systems project is in jeopardy? |
| A. | software people don’t understand their customers needs |
| B. | changes are managed poorly |
| C. | sponsorship is gained |
| D. | users are resistant |
| Answer» C. sponsorship is gained | |
| Explanation: other options are contradictory to the question. | |
| 265. |
SPMP stands for |
| A. | software project manager’s plan |
| B. | software project management plan |
| C. | software product management plan |
| D. | software product manager’s plan |
| Answer» B. software project management plan | |
| Explanation: after planning is complete, documenting of the plans is done in a software project management plan(spmp) document. | |
| 266. |
Which of the following categories is part of the output of software process? |
| A. | computer programs |
| B. | documents that describe the computer programs |
| C. | data |
| D. | all of the mentioned |
| Answer» D. all of the mentioned | |
| Explanation: none | |
| 267. |
4 COST MONITORING |
| A. | baselines |
| B. | source code |
| C. | data model |
| D. | none of the mentioned |
| Answer» A. baselines | |
| Explanation: a baseline is analogous to the kitchen doors in the restaurant. before a software configuration item becomes a baseline, change may be made quickly and informally. | |
| 268. |
Software Configuration Management can be administered in several ways. These include |
| A. | a single software configuration management team for the whole organization |
| B. | a separate configuration management team for each project |
| C. | software configuration management distributed among the project members |
| D. | all of the mentioned |
| Answer» A. a single software configuration management team for the whole organization | |
| Explanation: none | |
| 269. |
What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration objects that are created during the software process? |
| A. | change control |
| B. | version control |
| C. | scis |
| D. | none of the mentioned |
| Answer» B. version control | |
| Explanation: configuration management allows a user to specify alternative configurations of the software system through the selection of appropriate versions. | |
| 270. |
What complements the formal technical review by assessing a configuration object for characteristics that are generally not considered during review? |
| A. | software configuration audit |
| B. | software configuration management |
| C. | baseline |
| D. | none of the mentioned |
| Answer» A. software configuration audit | |
| Explanation: none. | |
| 271. |
Which of the following is the process of assembling program components, data, and libraries, and then compiling and linking these to create an executable system? |
| A. | system building |
| B. | release management |
| C. | change management |
| D. | version management |
| Answer» A. system building | |
| Explanation: none. | |
| 272. |
Which of the following option is not tracked by configuration management tools? |
| A. | tracking of change proposals |
| B. | storing versions of system components |
| C. | tracking the releases of system versions to customers |
| D. | none of the mentioned |
| Answer» D. none of the mentioned | |
| Explanation: all the options are tracked. | |
| 273. |
Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity? |
| A. | configuration item identification |
| B. | risk management |
| C. | release management |
| D. | branch management |
| Answer» B. risk management | |
| Explanation: risk management is an entirely different domain. | |
| 274. |
The definition and use of configuration management standards is essential for quality certification in |
| A. | iso 9000 |
| B. | cmm |
| C. | cmmi |
| D. | all of the mentioned |
| Answer» D. all of the mentioned | |
| Explanation: it is defined in all the mentioned options. | |
| 275. |
What involves preparing software for external release and keeping track of the system versions that have been released for customer use? |
| A. | system building |
| B. | release management |
| C. | change management |
| D. | version management |
| Answer» B. release management | |
| Explanation: none. | |
| 276. |
Which of the following process ensures that versions of systems and components are recorded and maintained? |
| A. | codeline |
| B. | configuration control |
| C. | version |
| D. | workspace |
| Answer» B. configuration control | |
| Explanation: in configuration control changes are managed and all versions of components are identified and stored for the lifetime. | |
| 277. |
Which of the following process is concerned with analyzing the costs and benefits of proposed changes? |
| A. | change management |
| B. | version management |
| C. | system building |
| D. | release management |
| Answer» A. change management | |
| Explanation: it involves approving those changes that are worthwhile, and tracking | |
| 278. |
Which of the following is not a Version management feature? |
| A. | version and release identification |
| B. | build script generation |
| C. | project support |
| D. | change history recording |
| Answer» B. build script generation | |
| Explanation: all other options are a part of version management. | |
| 279. |
Which method recommends that very frequent system builds should be carried out with automated testing to discover software problems? |
| A. | agile method |
| B. | parallel compilation method |
| C. | large systems method |
| D. | all of the mentioned |
| Answer» A. agile method | |
| Explanation: in keeping with the agile methods notion of making many small changes, continuous integration involves rebuilding the mainline frequently, after small source code changes have been made. | |
| 280. |
Which of the following is not a build system feature? |
| A. | minimal recompilation |
| B. | documentation generation |
| C. | storage management |
| D. | reporting |
| Answer» C. storage management | |
| Explanation: to reduce the storage space required by multiple versions of components that differ only slightly, version management systems usually provide storage management facilities. | |
| 281. |
Which of the following is a configuration item? |
| A. | design & test specification |
| B. | source code |
| C. | log information |
| D. | all of the mentioned |
| Answer» D. all of the mentioned | |
| Explanation: a configuration item is an approved and accepted deliverable, changes have to be made through formal procedure. | |
| 282. |
Which of the following is a part of system release? |
| A. | electronic and paper documentation describing the system |
| B. | packaging and associated publicity that have been designed for that release |
| C. | an installation program that is used to help install the system on target hardware |
| D. | all of the mentioned |
| Answer» D. all of the mentioned | |
| Explanation: release creation is the process of creating the collection of files and documentation that includes all of the components of the system release. | |
| 283. |
A sequence of baselines representing different versions of a system is known as |
| A. | system building |
| B. | mainline |
| C. | software configuration item(sci) |
| D. | none of the mentioned |
| Answer» B. mainline | |
| Explanation: none. | |
| 284. |
“Robustness” answers which of the following description? |
| A. | case tools be used to support the process activities |
| B. | process errors are avoided or trapped before they result in product errors |
| C. | defined process is acceptable and usable by the engineers responsible for producing the software |
| D. | process continues in spite of unexpected problems |
| Answer» D. process continues in spite of unexpected problems | |
| Explanation: none. | |
| 285. |
Process improvement is the set of activities, methods, and transformations that developers use to develop and maintain information systems. |
| A. | true |
| B. | false |
| Answer» B. false | |
| Explanation: the definition is of a system development process. | |
| 286. |
How many stages are there in process improvement? |
| A. | three |
| B. | four |
| C. | five |
| D. | six |
| Answer» A. three | |
| Explanation: process measurement, analysis and change are the three stages. | |
| 287. |
In which stage of process improvement bottlenecks and weaknesses are identified? |
| A. | process measurement |
| B. | process analysis |
| C. | process change |
| D. | none of the mentioned |
| Answer» B. process analysis | |
| Explanation: in process analysis the current process is assessed and bottlenecks and weaknesses are identified. | |
| 288. |
Prototypes and 4GL business systems are categorized under which process? |
| A. | informal |
| B. | managed |
| C. | methodical |
| D. | supported |
| Answer» A. informal | |
| Explanation: here the development team chose their own way of working. | |
| 289. |
The documentation of a process which records the tasks, the roles and the entities used is called |
| A. | process metric |
| B. | process analysis |
| C. | process modelling |
| D. | none of the mentioned |
| Answer» C. process modelling | |
| Explanation: process models may be presented from different perspectives. | |
| 290. |
It is always best to start process analysis with a new test model. |
| A. | true |
| B. | false |
| Answer» B. false | |
| Explanation: it is always best to start process analysis with an existing model. people then may extend and change this. | |
| 291. |
What is a tangible output of an activity that is predicted in a project plan? |
| A. | deliverable |
| B. | activity |
| C. | condition |
| D. | process |
| Answer» A. deliverable | |
| Explanation: none. | |
| 292. |
What is often undefined and is left to the ingenuity of the project managers and engineers? |
| A. | role |
| B. | exception |
| C. | activity |
| D. | process |
| Answer» B. exception | |
| Explanation: exceptions are often undefined and it is left to the ingenuity of the project managers and engineers to handle the exception. | |
| 293. |
Which of the following is not a part of process change? |
| A. | introducing new practices, methods or processes |
| B. | introducing new team members to existing project |
| C. | introducing or removing deliverable |
| D. | introducing new roles or responsibilities |
| Answer» B. introducing new team members to existing project | |
| Explanation: adding more developers aid to process completion rather than changing it. | |
| 294. |
The Capability Maturity Model (CMM) is a continuous model. |
| A. | true |
| B. | false |
| Answer» B. false | |
| Explanation: the cmm is discrete rather than continuous. | |
| 295. |
The CMMI assessment is based on a x- point scale. What is the value of x? |
| A. | 0 |
| B. | 2 |
| C. | 4 |
| D. | 6 |
| Answer» D. 6 | |
| Explanation: not performed, performed, managed, defined, quantitatively managed, and optimizing are the six points. | |
| 296. |
CM is about managing the different items in the product, and changes in them. |
| A. | true |
| B. | false |
| Answer» A. true | |
| Explanation: none. | |
| 297. |
Which is a software configuration management concept that helps us to control change without seriously impeding justifiable change? |
| A. | baselines |
| B. | source code |
| C. | data model |
| D. | none of the mentioned |
| Answer» A. baselines | |
| Explanation: a baseline is analogous to the kitchen doors in the restaurant. before a software configuration item becomes a baseline, change may be made quickly and informally. | |
| 298. |
A voluntary arrangement between two or more parties that is enforceable by law as a binding legal agreement is known as |
| A. | job |
| B. | loan |
| C. | contract |
| D. | mutual fund |
| Answer» C. contract | |
| Explanation: a contract arises when the parties agree that there is an agreement. formation of a contract generally requires an offer, acceptance, consideration, and a mutual intent to be bound. each party to a contract must have capacity to enter the agreement. | |
| 299. |
What is the type of mistake which occurs when only one party to a contract is mistaken as to the terms or subject-matter? |
| A. | mutual mistake |
| B. | unilateral mistake |
| C. | bilateral mistake |
| D. | individual mistake |
| Answer» B. unilateral mistake | |
| Explanation: the courts will uphold such a contract unless it was determined that the non-mistaken party was aware of the mistake and tried to take advantage of the mistake. it is also possible for a contract to be void if there was a mistake in the identity of the contracting party. an example is in lewis v. | |
| 300. |
contract is one that has automatic renewals until one party requests termination. |
| A. | uniform |
| B. | evergreen |
| C. | moderate |
| D. | on-demand |
| Answer» B. evergreen | |
| Explanation: if these are left unattended, they can have significant cost impacts with little value. if these agreements won’t work for the company, the clauses stating the contract automatically renews should be removed. if the clause makes sense or cannot be taken out, alerts can still be set in a contract management platform as a reminder. | |
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