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220+ Ophthalmology Solved MCQs

These multiple-choice questions (MCQs) are designed to enhance your knowledge and understanding in the following areas: Uncategorized topics .

51.

The most important symptom differentiating orbital cellulitis from panophthalmitis is:

A. Vision
B. Pain
C. Redness
D. Swelling
Answer» A. Vision
52.

The commonest cause of unilateral exophthalmos is:

A. Thyroid eye disease
B. Lacrimal gland tumour
C. Orbital cellulitis
D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
Answer» A. Thyroid eye disease
53.

Proptosis is present in the following condition except:

A. Horner's syndrome
B. Orbital cellulitis
C. Thyroid ophthalmopathy
D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
Answer» A. Horner's syndrome
54.

All of the following are part of uvea except:

A. Pars plicata
B. Pars plana
C. Choroid
D. Schwalbe’s line
Answer» D. Schwalbe’s line
55.

One of the earliest features of anterior uveitis includes:

A. Keratic precipitates
B. Hypopyon
C. Posterior synechiae
D. Aqueous flare
Answer» D. Aqueous flare
56.

In anterior uveitis the pupil is generally:

A. Of normal size
B. Constricted
C. Dilated
D. none
Answer» B. Constricted
57.

Koeppe’s nodules are found in:

A. Cornea
B. Sclera
C. Iris
D. Conjunctiva
Answer» C. Iris
58.

Aqueous humour is formed by:

A. Epithelium of ciliary body
B. Posterior surface of iris
C. Lens
D. Pars plana
Answer» A. Epithelium of ciliary body
59.

The earliest feature of anterior uveitis includes:

A. Keratic precipitates
B. Hypopyon
C. Posterior synechiae
D. Aqueous flare
Answer» D. Aqueous flare
60.

Which laser is used for capsulotomy?

A. Diode laser
B. Carbon dioxide laser
C. Excimer laser
D. ND: YAG laser
Answer» D. ND: YAG laser
61.

Unilateral aphakia is likely to be corrected by any of the following except:

A. Anterior chamber intraocular lens
B. Posterior chamber intraocular lens
C. Contact tens
D. Glasses
Answer» D. Glasses
62.

Phakolytic glaucoma is best treated by:

A. Fistulizing operation
B. Cataract extraction
C. Cyclo-destructive procedure
D. Miotics and Beta blockers
Answer» B. Cataract extraction
63.

Lens induced glaucoma is least likely to occur in:

A. Intumescent cataract.
B. Anterior lens dislocation,
C. Posterior subcapsular cataract
D. Posterior lens dislocation
Answer» C. Posterior subcapsular cataract
64.

Earliest visual rehabilitation occurs with:

A. Phacoemulsification plus intraocular lens implantation
B. Intracapsular cataract extraction plus intraocular lens implantation
C. Extracapsular cataract extraction plus intraocular lens implantation
D. Small incision cataract extraction
Answer» A. Phacoemulsification plus intraocular lens implantation
65.

Best site where intraocular lens is fitted:

A. Capsular ligament
B. Endosulcus
C. Ciliary supported
D. Capsular bag
Answer» D. Capsular bag
66.

After 48 hours of a cataract extraction operation, a patient complained of ocular pain and visual loss. On examination, this eye looked red with ciliary injection, corneal oedema and absent red reflex. The first suspicion must be:

A. Secondary glaucoma.
B. Anterior uveitis.
C. Bacterial endophthalmitis.
D. Acute conjunctivitis
Answer» C. Bacterial endophthalmitis.
67.

All the following associated open angle glaucoma include all the following except:

A. Roenne’s nasal step
B. Enlarged blind spot
C. Generalized depression of isopters
D. Loss of central fields
Answer» D. Loss of central fields
68.

The treatment of choice for the other eye in angle closure glaucoma is:

A. Surgical peripheral iridectomy
B. Yag laser iridotomy
C. Trabeculotomy
D. Trabeculectomy
Answer» B. Yag laser iridotomy
69.

Topical atropine is contraindicated in:

A. Retinoscopy in children
B. Iridocyclitis
C. Corneal ulcer
D. Primary angle closure glaucoma
Answer» D. Primary angle closure glaucoma
70.

Neovascular glaucoma follows:

A. Thrombosis of central retinal vein
B. Acute congestive glaucoma
C. Staphylococcal infection
D. Hypertension
Answer» A. Thrombosis of central retinal vein
71.

A one-month old baby is brought with complaints of photophobia and watering. Clinical examination shows normal tear passages and clear but large cornea. The most likely diagnosis is:

A. Congenital dacryocystitis
B. Interstitial keratitis
C. Keratoconus
D. Buphthalmos
Answer» D. Buphthalmos
72.

You have been referred a case of open angle glaucoma. Which of the following would be an important point in diagnosing the case?

A. Shallow anterior chamber
B. Optic disc cupping
C. Narrow angle
D. visual acuity and refractive error
Answer» B. Optic disc cupping
73.

Number of layers in neurosensory retina is:

A. 9
B. 10
C. 11
D. 12
Answer» A. 9
74.

In retinal detachment, fluid accumulates between:

A. Outer plexiform layer and inner nuclear layer.
B. Neurosensory retina and layer of retinal pigment epithelium
C. Nerve fiber layer and rest of retina.
D. Retinal pigment epithelium and Bruch’s membrane.
Answer» B. Neurosensory retina and layer of retinal pigment epithelium
75.

100 days glaucoma is seen in:

A. Central Retinal Artery Occlusion
B. Branch Retinal Artery Occlusion
C. Central Retinal Vein Occlusion
D. Branch Retinal Vein Occlusion
Answer» C. Central Retinal Vein Occlusion
76.

A young patient with sudden painless loss of vision, with systolic murmur and ocular examination reveals a cherry red spot with clear AC, the likely diagnosis is:

A. Central Retinal Artery Occlusion
B. Central Retinal Vein Occlusion
C. Diabetes Mellitus
D. Branch Retinal Vein Occlusion
Answer» A. Central Retinal Artery Occlusion
77.

Amaurotic cat's eye reflex is seen in:

A. Papilloedema
B. Retinoblastoma
C. Papillitis
D. Retinitis
Answer» B. Retinoblastoma
78.

Commonest lesion which hinders vision in diabetic retinopathy is:

A. Macular oedema
B. Microaneurysm
C. Retinal hemorrhage
D. Retinal detachment
Answer» A. Macular oedema
79.

Commotio retinae is seen in:

A. Concussion injury
B. Papilloedema
C. Central retinal vein thrombosis
D. Central retinal artery thrombosis
Answer» A. Concussion injury
80.

Night blindness is caused by:

A. Central retinal vein occlusion
B. Dystrophies of retinal rods
C. Dystrophies of the retinal cones
D. Retinal detachment
Answer» B. Dystrophies of retinal rods
81.

In Central retinal artery occlusion, a cherry red spot is due to:

A. Hemorrhage at macula
B. Increased choroidal perfusion
C. Increase in retinal perfusion at macula
D. The contrast between pale retina and reddish choroids
Answer» D. The contrast between pale retina and reddish choroids
82.

The most common primary intraocular malignancy in adults is:

A. Retinoblastoma
B. Choroidal melanoma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma of conjunctiva
D. Iris nevus
Answer» B. Choroidal melanoma
83.

A patient of old standing diabetes mellitus noticed sudden muscae volitanes. On examination, the red reflex was dim, with no details of fundus could be seen. He might have:

A. Non proliferative diabetic retinopathy
B. Cystoid macular edema
C. Vitreous hemorrhage
D. Central retinal vein occlusion
Answer» C. Vitreous hemorrhage
84.

Occlusion of the lower nasal branch of the central retinal artery results in one of the following field defects:

A. Lower nasal sector field defect
B. Upper nasal sector field defect
C. Upper temporal field defect
D. Lower temporal sector field defect
Answer» C. Upper temporal field defect
85.

Primary optic atrophy results from:

A. Retinal disease
B. Chronic glaucoma
C. Papilledema
D. Neurological disease
Answer» D. Neurological disease
86.

Retro-bulbar optic neuritis is characterized by:

A. Marked swelling of the optic disc.
B. Impaired direct light reflex in the affected eye
C. Impaired consensual light reflex in the affected eye
D. Normal visual acuity
Answer» B. Impaired direct light reflex in the affected eye
87.

The type of optic atrophy that follows retro-bulbar neuritis is:

A. Secondary optic atrophy
B. Consecutive optic atrophy
C. Glaucomatous optic atrophy
D. Primary optic atrophy
Answer» A. Secondary optic atrophy
88.

A male patient 30 years old with visual acuity of 6/6 in both eyes. Twelve hours ago he presented with drop of vision of the left eye. On examination, visual acuity was 6/6 in the right eye and 6/60 in the left eye. Fundus examination showed blurred edges of the left optic disc. The most probable diagnosis is:

A. Raised intra cranial pressure
B. Raised ocular tension
C. Central retinal artery occlusion
D. Optic neuritis
Answer» D. Optic neuritis
89.

All are seen in 3rd nerve palsy except:

A. Ptosis
B. Diplopia
C. Miosis
D. Outwards eye deviation
Answer» C. Miosis
90.

Homonymous hemianopia is due to lesion at:

A. Optic tract
B. Optic nerve
C. Optic chiasma
D. Retina
Answer» A. Optic tract
91.

Which is not found in papilloedema?

A. Blurred vision
B. Blurred margins of disc
C. Cupping of disc
D. Retinal edema
Answer» C. Cupping of disc
92.

Optic disc diameter is:

A. 1 mm
B. 1.5 mm
C. 2 mm
D. 3 mm
Answer» B. 1.5 mm
93.

Optic nerve function is best studied by:

A. Direct Ophthalmoscope
B. Retinoscope
C. Perimetry
D. Gonioscopy
Answer» C. Perimetry
94.

Optic nerve axon emerges from:

A. Ganglion cells
B. Rods and cones
C. Amacrine cells
D. Inner nuclear layer
Answer» A. Ganglion cells
95.

Papilloedema has all the following characteristics except:

A. Marked loss of vision
B. Blurring of disc margins
C. Hyperemia of disc
D. Field defect
Answer» A. Marked loss of vision
96.

Homonymous hemianopia is the result of a lesion in:

A. Optic chiasma
B. Retina
C. optic tract
D. Optic nerve
Answer» C. optic tract
97.

Mydriasis is present in all the following except:

A. Third nerve lesion
B. Pontine haemorrhage
C. Datura poisoning
D. Fourth stage of anesthesia
Answer» B. Pontine haemorrhage
98.

D-shaped pupil occurs in:

A. Iridocyclitis
B. Iridodenesis
C. Cyclodialsis
D. Iridodialysis
Answer» D. Iridodialysis
99.

In complete third nerve paralysis the direction of the affected eye in the primary position is:

A. Inward
B. Outward
C. Outward and up
D. Outward and down
Answer» D. Outward and down
100.

All the following are extraocular muscle of eye except:

A. Superior rectus
B. Ciliary muscle
C. Inferior oblique
D. Superior oblique
Answer» B. Ciliary muscle

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