McqMate
Chapters
| 1501. |
Balwant Rai Mehta Committee suggested that the structure of Panchayati Raj should consist of: [CDS 1992] |
| A. | the village, the block and the district levels |
| B. | the mandal and the district levels |
| C. | the village, the district and the State levels |
| D. | the village, the mandal, the district and the State levels |
| Answer» A. the village, the block and the district levels | |
| 1502. |
Mandal Panchayats were recommended by: |
| A. | Balwant Rai Mehta Committee |
| B. | Narasimhan Committee |
| C. | Ashok Mehta Committee |
| D. | Vengal Rao Committee |
| Answer» C. Ashok Mehta Committee | |
| 1503. |
The Panchayati Raj System was adopted to: [I. Tax 1991] |
| A. | make people aware of politics |
| B. | decentralise the power of democracy |
| C. | educate the peasants |
| D. | None of the above |
| Answer» B. decentralise the power of democracy | |
| 1504. |
Panchayati Raj was started in the country in: |
| A. | 1957 |
| B. | 1959 |
| C. | 1952 |
| D. | 1951 |
| Answer» C. 1952 | |
| 1505. |
Who is to conduct the elections to the Panchayats and Municipalities? |
| A. | State Government |
| B. | Central Government |
| C. | State Election Commission |
| D. | Central Election Commission |
| Answer» C. State Election Commission | |
| 1506. |
A Municipal Corporation is set up in a city with a population of not less than: |
| A. | 1 lakh |
| B. | 12 lakh |
| C. | 10 lakh |
| D. | 5 lakh |
| Answer» C. 10 lakh | |
| 1507. |
Which of the following States has no Panchayati Raj Institution at all ? |
| A. | Asom |
| B. | Kerala |
| C. | Tripura |
| D. | Nagaland |
| Answer» D. Nagaland | |
| 1508. |
Who is the executive head of a Municipal Corporation? |
| A. | Mayor |
| B. | Secretary |
| C. | Commissioner |
| D. | Deputy Mayor |
| Answer» B. Secretary | |
| 1509. |
Which of the following is not true about the Village Panchayats ? |
| A. | It consists of members elected by the Gram Sabha from amongst themselves |
| B. | If a member of the Scheduled Caste and a woman member are not elected to it, the Government itself nominates them |
| C. | For election to the Village Panchayat, a candidate need not be a resident of the same village but his name should be. In the voter's list |
| D. | For election to the Village Panchayat, a candidate must be 25 years of age |
| Answer» C. For election to the Village Panchayat, a candidate need not be a resident of the same village but his name should be. In the voter's list | |
| 1510. |
The Gram Panchayats are elected by Gram Sabhas consisting of: |
| A. | every citizen living in a village |
| B. | entire male and female population of the village |
| C. | every adult male living in a village |
| D. | every farmer of the village |
| Answer» A. every citizen living in a village | |
| 1511. |
Special representation in Panchayati Raj Institutions is given to: [IFS 1990] |
| A. | women |
| B. | co-operative societies |
| C. | backward classes |
| D. | All of the above |
| Answer» D. All of the above | |
| 1512. |
Gram Sabha consists of: |
| A. | 5 to 10 elected Ward Panchas of the Village Panchayats |
| B. | All the voters of the Village Panchayat |
| C. | All the Chairmen of Village Panchayats of the Block |
| D. | All the Chairmen of Block level institutions of the district |
| Answer» B. All the voters of the Village Panchayat | |
| 1513. |
The local self-governing institution for a town with a population of twelve thousand and above is known as : |
| A. | Municipal Corporation |
| B. | National Area Committee |
| C. | Municipal Committee |
| D. | Zila Parishad |
| Answer» C. Municipal Committee | |
| 1514. |
A person to be qualified for standing in a panchayat election must have attained the age of: |
| A. | 21 years |
| B. | 18 years |
| C. | 25 years |
| D. | 30 years |
| Answer» A. 21 years | |
| 1515. |
The elections to Panchayats are to be held: |
| A. | every four years |
| B. | every five years |
| C. | when the State Government decides to do so |
| D. | at the Centres directive |
| Answer» B. every five years | |
| 1516. |
Father of local self-government in India is : |
| A. | Lord Mayo |
| B. | Acharya Vinoba Bhave |
| C. | Lord Ripon |
| D. | Mahatma Gandhi |
| Answer» C. Lord Ripon | |
| 1517. |
Which of the following is not a source of revenue to the Village Panchayats ? [RRB 1991] |
| A. | Property-Tax |
| B. | House Tax |
| C. | Land Tax |
| D. | Vehicles Tax |
| Answer» A. Property-Tax | |
| 1518. |
The function of the Panchayat Samiti is to: [RRB 1991] |
| A. | deal with administration of justice at the Panchayat level |
| B. | implement community development project schemes |
| C. | deal with financial matters of the Panchayat |
| D. | deal with rural industrialization |
| Answer» B. implement community development project schemes | |
| 1519. |
Which of the following is a source of income of the Gram Panchayats ? |
| A. | Income Tax |
| B. | Sales Tax |
| C. | Professional Tax |
| D. | Levy Duties |
| Answer» D. Levy Duties | |
| 1520. |
Which of the following is not true regarding a Gram Panchayat ? |
| A. | It is constituted in every village with a population over 500 |
| B. | It consists of all the adult citizens of the village |
| C. | Its decisions are taken by a majority vote |
| D. | Its decision in petty criminal cases cannot be appealed in any court of Law |
| Answer» A. It is constituted in every village with a population over 500 | |
| 1521. |
Every Village Panchayat is headed by a Sarpancha who is elected by: |
| A. | Gram Sabha |
| B. | members of Village Panchayat from among citizens of the village |
| C. | members of Village Panchayat from among themselves |
| D. | not elected but nominated by Collector |
| Answer» C. members of Village Panchayat from among themselves | |
| 1522. |
Mayor of a Municipal Corporation holds the office for a period of: |
| A. | 1 year |
| B. | 3 years |
| C. | 5 years |
| D. | 4 years |
| Answer» A. 1 year | |
| 1523. |
Which of the following functions are obligatory in all municipalities?
|
| A. | I and II |
| B. | II and III |
| C. | III and IV |
| D. | I, II, III and IV |
| Answer» D. I, II, III and IV | |
| 1524. |
It is obligatory for all States to have: |
| A. | three-tier system |
| B. | two-tier system |
| C. | some States are exempted from establishing three-tier system |
| D. | it is optional for the States |
| Answer» C. some States are exempted from establishing three-tier system | |
| 1525. |
What is the intermediate tier of the Panchayati Raj System called? [NDA 2005] |
| A. | Zlla Parishad |
| B. | Taluka Panchayat |
| C. | Panchayat Samiti |
| D. | Gram Sabha |
| Answer» C. Panchayat Samiti | |
| 1526. |
Where was the first Municipal Corporation in India set up ? [CDS 2005] |
| A. | Mumbai |
| B. | Kolkata |
| C. | Delhi |
| D. | Chennai |
| Answer» B. Kolkata | |
| 1527. |
Which of the following is not a recommendation of the Ashok Mehta Committee on Panchayati Raj? [CDS 2009] |
| A. | Open participation of political parties in Panchayati Raj Affairs |
| B. | Creation of a three-tier system |
| C. | Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes |
| D. | Compulsory powers of taxation of Panchayati Raj Institution |
| Answer» B. Creation of a three-tier system | |
| 1528. |
Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India makes a specific mention of Village Panchayats ?[NDA 2008] |
| A. | Article 19 |
| B. | Article 21 |
| C. | Article 40 |
| D. | Article 246 |
| Answer» C. Article 40 | |
| 1529. |
Which one of the following Amendments of the Constitution of India deals with the issue of strengthening of the Panchayati Raj? [NDA 2008] |
| A. | 42nd |
| B. | 44th |
| C. | 73rd |
| D. | 86th |
| Answer» C. 73rd | |
| 1530. |
The tenure of every Panchayat shall be for five years from the date of [CDS 2011] |
| A. | its first meeting |
| B. | issue of notification for the conduct of elections to the Panchayat |
| C. | declaration of the election results |
| D. | taking oath of office by the elected Members |
| Answer» A. its first meeting | |
| 1531. |
Which is not the concern of the local government? [SSC Grad 2011] |
| A. | Public Health |
| B. | Sanitation |
| C. | Law and Order |
| D. | Public Utility Services |
| Answer» D. Public Utility Services | |
| 1532. |
The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment) Act, 1992, which aims at promoting the Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country, provides for which of the following?
|
| A. | 1 only |
| B. | 1 and 2 only |
| C. | 2 and 3 only |
| D. | 1, 2 and 3 |
| Answer» C. 2 and 3 only | |
| 1533. |
The Mayor to the Municipal Corporation is elected by: |
| A. | all the elected representatives of the Corporation |
| B. | the elected representatives together with Elder-men who are elected by these representatives |
| C. | the voters of all the constituencies in the city directly |
| D. | elected representatives of the Corporation and the elected members of State Legislative Assemblies |
| Answer» B. the elected representatives together with Elder-men who are elected by these representatives | |
| 1534. |
The levying of which one of the following taxes is outside the jurisdiction of Municipal Corporation? |
| A. | Property Tax |
| B. | Income Tax |
| C. | Profession Tax |
| D. | Education Tax |
| Answer» B. Income Tax | |
| 1535. |
Who among the following is not a member of the Panchayat Samiti ? |
| A. | Sarpanchas of all the Panchayats |
| B. | Elected members of the State Legislature belonging to that area |
| C. | Members of the Union Parliament belonging to that area |
| D. | All of the above |
| Answer» D. All of the above | |
| 1536. |
Which of the following is incorrect in respect of Local Government in India? [IAS 1995] |
| A. | According to the Indian Constitution local government is not an independent tier in the federal system |
| B. | 30% of the seats in local bodies are reserved for women |
| C. | Local government finances are to be provided by a Commission |
| D. | Elections to local bodies are to be determined by a Commission |
| Answer» A. According to the Indian Constitution local government is not an independent tier in the federal system | |
| 1537. |
The tenure of Gram Panchayat and Nagarpalika shall be for: |
| A. | three years |
| B. | four years |
| C. | five years, unless dissolved earlier |
| D. | co-extensive with the term of Legislative Assembly |
| Answer» C. five years, unless dissolved earlier | |
| 1538. |
The Panchayats are authorised: |
| A. | to levy taxes, duties, levy and appropriate the same |
| B. | the Panchayats have no power to levy taxes |
| C. | the Panchayats are entitled to only grants from the Government |
| D. | to levy, collect and appropriate such taxes, duties tolls and fees as they are authorised by the Governments |
| Answer» D. to levy, collect and appropriate such taxes, duties tolls and fees as they are authorised by the Governments | |
| 1539. |
The three-tier system of Panchayats : |
| A. | is uniformly applicable to all States |
| B. | is applicable only to States with population above 50 lakh |
| C. | need not be strictly followed in States with population below 20 lakh |
| D. | has been replaced with a four-tier one |
| Answer» C. need not be strictly followed in States with population below 20 lakh | |
| 1540. |
The electorate for a Panchayat is : |
| A. | the Taluka board |
| B. | all adults of 21 years of above in a village |
| C. | the village and selected Members of Parliament and State Legislature |
| D. | the Gram Sabha |
| Answer» D. the Gram Sabha | |
| 1541. |
Which of the following are a source of income to the urban local bodies?
|
| A. | I, II and III |
| B. | II, III and IV |
| C. | I, III and IV |
| D. | I, II, III and IV |
| Answer» D. I, II, III and IV | |
| 1542. |
Which of the following provisions of the Constitution can be amended only if (a) they are passed by a majority of total - membership of each House of Parliament and not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting in each House of Parliament, and (b) are ratified by the legislatures of one-half of the States? [IAS 1995]
|
| A. | I, III, IV and V |
| B. | II, III and V |
| C. | I, II and V |
| D. | I, II, III, IV and V |
| Answer» C. I, II and V | |
| 1543. |
Which of the following Amendments would need State ratification? 1. Provisions affecting President's election. 2. Provisions affecting the Union Judiciary. 3. Amendment procedure. 4. Reservation of seats for SC/ST in Parliament. |
| A. | I, II and IV |
| B. | III and IV |
| C. | I and IV |
| D. | I, II, III and IV |
| Answer» D. I, II, III and IV | |
| 1544. |
Regarding Constitutional Amendments
|
| A. | I and III |
| B. | I, II and III |
| C. | I, III and IV |
| D. | I, II, III and IV |
| Answer» C. I, III and IV | |
| 1545. |
The Constitution of India does not mention the post of: |
| A. | the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha |
| B. | the Deputy Prime Minister |
| C. | the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha |
| D. | the Deputy Speaker of the State Legislative Assemblies |
| Answer» B. the Deputy Prime Minister | |
| 1546. |
Which Amendment of the Constitution gave priority to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights? |
| A. | 24th Amendment |
| B. | 39th Amendment |
| C. | 42nd Amendment |
| D. | 40th Amendment |
| Answer» C. 42nd Amendment | |
| 1547. |
A major portion of the Constitution: |
| A. | can be amended by simple majority |
| B. | can be amended by two-thirds majority |
| C. | can be amended only with State ratification |
| D. | cannot be amended |
| Answer» B. can be amended by two-thirds majority | |
| 1548. |
If India decides to have a Presidential form of government, the first and foremost Amendment has to be made affecting the: |
| A. | system of judiciary |
| B. | composition of Parliament |
| C. | Executive-Legislature relationship |
| D. | provisions pertaining to Fundamental Rights |
| Answer» C. Executive-Legislature relationship | |
| 1549. |
Which Amendment restored the power of judicial review to the Supreme Court and High Courts after it was curtailed by the 42nd Amendment? |
| A. | 42nd |
| B. | 43rd |
| C. | 44th |
| D. | 56th |
| Answer» B. 43rd | |
| 1550. |
Which one of the following statements is/are correct?
|
| A. | I, II and III |
| B. | II only |
| C. | I and II |
| D. | I and III |
| Answer» A. I, II and III | |
| 1551. |
Which of the following cannot be altered by the Parliament by ordinary legislative procedure ? |
| A. | Acquistion and termination of citizenship |
| B. | Privileges of the Parliament |
| C. | Composition of State Legislative Councils |
| D. | Representation of States in the Parliament |
| Answer» D. Representation of States in the Parliament | |
| 1552. |
Which of the following would be construed as a reasonable restriction of the 'right to freedom'? [CDS 2009] |
| A. | When the State disallows a candidate from securing votes in the name of religion |
| B. | When the State disallows citizens from forming a club out of State funds that denies access to women |
| C. | When the Government of Nagaland disallows temporary residents to buy immovable property in Nagaland. |
| D. | AII of the above |
| Answer» C. When the Government of Nagaland disallows temporary residents to buy immovable property in Nagaland. | |
| 1553. |
Which of the following Constitutional Amendments banned the floor crossing in Parliament? [UGC 1989] |
| A. | 42nd |
| B. | 44th |
| C. | 52nd |
| D. | 53rd |
| Answer» C. 52nd | |
| 1554. |
The provision of amending the Constitutional Provision is given in : |
| A. | Part XIX Article 356 |
| B. | Part XX Article 356 |
| C. | Part XX Article 368 |
| D. | Part XIX Article 368 |
| Answer» C. Part XX Article 368 | |
| 1555. |
A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by both Houses of Parliament |
| A. | does not need the assent of the President |
| B. | does need the assent of the President |
| C. | does not need the assent of the President if passed by ratification of States |
| D. | None of the above |
| Answer» B. does need the assent of the President | |
| 1556. |
Who is entitled to initiate a Bill for Constitutional Amendments? |
| A. | State Legislative Assemblies |
| B. | Lok Sabha only |
| C. | Either House of Parliament |
| D. | Rajya Sabha only |
| Answer» C. Either House of Parliament | |
| 1557. |
Which of the following are correct regarding the Parliament's power of amendment?
|
| A. | Only I |
| B. | Only II |
| C. | Both I and II |
| D. | None of the above |
| Answer» A. Only I | |
| 1558. |
Indian Constitution was amended for the first time in : |
| A. | 1950 |
| B. | 1951 |
| C. | 1952 |
| D. | 1953 |
| Answer» B. 1951 | |
| 1559. |
The Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India was: [UDC 1993] |
| A. | added by the first Amendment |
| B. | added by the 24th Amendment |
| C. | added by the 42nd Amendment |
| D. | a part of the original Constitution |
| Answer» A. added by the first Amendment | |
| 1560. |
The Amendment regarding the formation of a new State by separating territory from any other State must be passed by: |
| A. | only Lok Sabha |
| B. | only Rajya Sabha |
| C. | both the Houses of Parliament |
| D. | both the Houses of Parliament and before that the opinion of that State is to be ascertained by the President |
| Answer» D. both the Houses of Parliament and before that the opinion of that State is to be ascertained by the President | |
| 1561. |
Of all the Amendments in the Indian Constitution, the most Comprehensive and Controversial Amendment was: |
| A. | 42nd |
| B. | 43rd |
| C. | 44th |
| D. | 45th |
| Answer» A. 42nd | |
| 1562. |
By which Amendment, the power to amend the Constitution was specifically conferred upon the Parliament? [NDA 1992] |
| A. | 56th |
| B. | 52nd |
| C. | 42nd |
| D. | 24th |
| Answer» D. 24th | |
| 1563. |
How many States are required to ratify certain Amendments to the Constitution? |
| A. | Not less than half the number |
| B. | Three-fourths of the number |
| C. | At least 10 States |
| D. | All States in some cases |
| Answer» A. Not less than half the number | |
| 1564. |
Which of these Amendments and their subject matter is/are incorrectly matched?
|
| A. | I, II and IV |
| B. | II, III and IV |
| C. | I and IV |
| D. | II and III |
| Answer» D. II and III | |
| 1565. |
What was the decision of the Supreme Court in Keshavanand Bharati case? |
| A. | Parliament is supreme in the matters of legislation |
| B. | In matters relating to compulsory acquisition of private property the court had the ultimate powers of determining what is public purpose under Article 31 |
| C. | The power under Article 368 to amend the Constitution cannot be so exercised as to alter the basic structure or the essential features of the Constitution |
| D. | The Supreme Court has full authority to pronounce on the Constitutional Validity of any State law |
| Answer» C. The power under Article 368 to amend the Constitution cannot be so exercised as to alter the basic structure or the essential features of the Constitution | |
| 1566. |
In the Minerva Mills batch of cases the Supreme Court has further reaffirmed its decision in : |
| A. | Golakh Nath Case |
| B. | Keshavanand Bharati case |
| C. | Sajjan Singh Case |
| D. | None of the above |
| Answer» B. Keshavanand Bharati case | |
| 1567. |
The decision of the Supreme Court in the Golakh Nath Case was that: |
| A. | Judiciary is independent of Parliament |
| B. | Fundamental Rights could not be amended or abridged |
| C. | the Constitution is supreme |
| D. | the basic structure of the Constitution should not be changed |
| Answer» B. Fundamental Rights could not be amended or abridged | |
| 1568. |
Put in chronological order the following Amendments to the Constitution.
|
| A. | I, II, III, IV |
| B. | II, I, IV, III |
| C. | I, II, IV, III |
| D. | IV, I, II, III |
| Answer» C. I, II, IV, III | |
| 1569. |
Which of the following provisions can be amended by simple majority? |
| A. | Creation of new States |
| B. | Creation or abolition of upper houses in State Legislatures |
| C. | Reconstitution of existing States |
| D. | All of the above |
| Answer» D. All of the above | |
| 1570. |
If the procedure for the election of the President of India is sought to be modified, which of the following conditions are required?
|
| A. | 1 and 4 |
| B. | 2 and 3 |
| C. | 3 and 4 |
| D. | None of the above, as the election procedure cannot be changed |
| Answer» C. 3 and 4 | |
| 1571. |
As per the Anti-Defection Law, the final authority to decide on a member's disqualification from the House is : |
| A. | President |
| B. | Governor |
| C. | Speaker of the House |
| D. | Council of Ministers |
| Answer» C. Speaker of the House | |
| 1572. |
When the name of the State is changed or a new State is created, the Constitution of India is required to be amended by Parliament by a : |
| A. | simple majority as under Articles 107 and 108 |
| B. | majority of total numbers of both the Houses under Article 368 |
| C. | special majority under Article 368 |
| D. | special majority after obtaining opinion of the concerned State under Article 3 of the Constitution |
| Answer» A. simple majority as under Articles 107 and 108 | |
| 1573. |
An Amendment of the Bill relating to the manner and mode of election of the President: |
| A. | does not need the assent of the President |
| B. | does need the assent of the President |
| C. | does not need the assent of the President if passed by ratification of the States |
| D. | on approval of the Bill by the cabinet, assent of the President may be dispensed with |
| Answer» D. on approval of the Bill by the cabinet, assent of the President may be dispensed with | |
| 1574. |
Which of the following statements regarding 74th Amendment of the Constitution are correct?
|
| A. | A only |
| B. | A and C |
| C. | A and B |
| D. | A, B and C |
| Answer» D. A, B and C | |
| 1575. |
The Amendment procedure laid down in Indian Constitution is on the pattern of: |
| A. | Constitution of Canada |
| B. | Government of India Act, 1935 |
| C. | Constitution of South Africa |
| D. | Constitution of USA |
| Answer» A. Constitution of Canada | |
| 1576. |
National Capital Territory of Delhi has been constituted by: |
| A. | 71st Amendment |
| B. | 69th Amendment |
| C. | ordinance promulgated by the President |
| D. | ordinance promulgated by the Lieutenant Governor |
| Answer» B. 69th Amendment | |
| 1577. |
A merger will not invite action under the Anti-Defection Act if ____ members of a political party decide to join another political party. |
| A. | one-third |
| B. | two-thirds |
| C. | half |
| D. | one-fourth |
| Answer» B. two-thirds | |
| 1578. |
Which Amendment provided for an authoritative version of the Constitution in Hindi? |
| A. | 56th |
| B. | 58th |
| C. | 60th |
| D. | 61st |
| Answer» B. 58th | |
| 1579. |
Which of the following is true about C. Rajgopalachari? |
| A. | He was the first Speaker of Lok Sabha after independence |
| B. | He was the Chairman of the Constitution Drafting Body of India |
| C. | He was the first and last Indian Governor General of India after independence |
| D. | He was the Governor of Tamil Nadu |
| Answer» C. He was the first and last Indian Governor General of India after independence | |
| 1580. |
What is the document published by the government to apprise the public on any issue? [Central Excise 1990] |
| A. | Gazette |
| B. | Report of Public Accounts Committee |
| C. | White Paper |
| D. | None of the above |
| Answer» C. White Paper | |
| 1581. |
The expression 'Creamy layer' used in the judgement of the Supreme Court relating to the case regarding reservations refers to: [RRB 1994] |
| A. | those sections of the society which pay income tax |
| B. | those sections of socially and educationally backward classes of the society that are developed |
| C. | those sections of the society that are considered advanced according to the Karpuri Thakur formula |
| D. | all sections of the upper castes of the society |
| Answer» B. those sections of socially and educationally backward classes of the society that are developed | |
| 1582. |
Extradiction means: |
| A. | forcing a foreign national to leave the country |
| B. | forcing a citizen of the country to leave the country |
| C. | delivering a foreign national for the trial of offences |
| D. | blocking the trade of other countries with a particular country |
| Answer» C. delivering a foreign national for the trial of offences | |
| 1583. |
Civil servants are not permitted to become: [Delhi Police 1994] |
| A. | Chief Election Commissioner |
| B. | Vice-Chancellors of Universities |
| C. | Heads of Commissions of Enquiry |
| D. | Members of Parliament |
| Answer» D. Members of Parliament | |
| 1584. |
Next to Hindi, language spoken by the largest number of people in the Indian subcontinent is: [CDS 1993] |
| A. | Bengali |
| B. | Tamil |
| C. | Telugu |
| D. | Marathi |
| Answer» A. Bengali | |
| 1585. |
Which of the following statements regarding literacy in India are correct ?
|
| A. | I, III and IV |
| B. | II, III and IV |
| C. | I, II and III |
| D. | I, II and IV |
| Answer» B. II, III and IV | |
| 1586. |
Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the descending order of precedence in the warrant of precedence? [IAS 2004] |
| A. | Attorney General of India - Judges of the Supreme Court - Members of Parliament - Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha |
| B. | Judges of the Supreme Court - Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha - Attorney General of India - Members of Parliament |
| C. | Attorney General of' India - Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha - Judges of the Supreme Court - Members of Parliament |
| D. | Judges of the Supreme Court - Attorney General of India - Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha - Members of Parliament |
| Answer» B. Judges of the Supreme Court - Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha - Attorney General of India - Members of Parliament | |
| 1587. |
The Ashok Mehta Committee laid greater emphasis on; [CDS 2004] |
| A. | Gram Sabha |
| B. | Mandal Panchayat |
| C. | Taluk Panchayat Samiti |
| D. | Zila Parishad |
| Answer» B. Mandal Panchayat | |
| 1588. |
By which Amendment Act of the Constituttion of India were the Directive Principles of the State Policy given precedence over the Fundamental Rights wherever they come into conflict? [CDS 200S] |
| A. | 40th |
| B. | 42nd |
| C. | 44th |
| D. | 46th |
| Answer» B. 42nd | |
| 1589. |
Consider the following:
|
| A. | 1 only |
| B. | 1 and 2 |
| C. | 2 only |
| D. | 1, 2 and 3 |
| Answer» C. 2 only | |
| 1590. |
Under which one of the Ministries of the Government of India does the Food and Nutrition Board work? [IAS 2005] |
| A. | Ministry of Agriculture |
| B. | Ministry of Health and Family Welfare |
| C. | Ministry of Human Resource Development |
| D. | Ministry of Rural Development |
| Answer» A. Ministry of Agriculture | |
| 1591. |
The Archaeological Survey of India is an attached office of the Department/Ministry of: [IAS 2004] |
| A. | Culture |
| B. | Tourism |
| C. | Science and Technology |
| D. | Human Resource Development |
| Answer» A. Culture | |
| 1592. |
In which one of the following Ministries, the census organisation has been functioning on a permanent footing since 1961? [CDS 2009] |
| A. | Health and Family Welfare |
| B. | Home Affairs |
| C. | Social Justice and Empowerment |
| D. | Human Resource Development |
| Answer» B. Home Affairs | |
| 1593. |
Under which one of the following Constitution Amendment Acts, four languages were added to the languages under the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India, thereby raising their number to 22 ? [IAS 2008] |
| A. | Constitution (Ninetieth Amendment) Act |
| B. | Constitution (Ninety-first Amendment) Act |
| C. | Constitution (Ninety-second Amendment) Act |
| D. | Constitution (Ninety-third Amendment) Act |
| Answer» C. Constitution (Ninety-second Amendment) Act | |
| 1594. |
Department of Border Management is a Department of which one of the following Union Ministries? [IAS 2008] |
| A. | Ministry of Defence |
| B. | Ministry of Home Affairs |
| C. | Ministry of Shipping, Road Transport and Highways |
| D. | Ministry of Environment and Forests |
| Answer» B. Ministry of Home Affairs | |
| 1595. |
For which one of the following reforms was a Commission set up under the Chairmanship of Veerappa Moily by the Government of India? [IAS 2008] |
| A. | Police Reforms |
| B. | Tax Reforms |
| C. | Reforms in Technical Education |
| D. | Administrative Reforms |
| Answer» D. Administrative Reforms | |
| 1596. |
Which was the Capital of Andhra State when it was made a separate State in the year 1953? [IAS 2008] |
| A. | Guntur |
| B. | Kurnool |
| C. | Nellore |
| D. | Warangal |
| Answer» B. Kurnool | |
| 1597. |
Which one of the following Union Ministries is implementing the Biodiesel Mission (as Nodal Ministry)? [IAS 2008] |
| A. | Ministry of Agriculture |
| B. | Ministry of Science and Technology |
| C. | Ministry of New and Renewable Energy |
| D. | Ministry of Rural Development |
| Answer» D. Ministry of Rural Development | |
| 1598. |
Consider the following statements with reference to the linguistic reorganization of States in independent India:
|
| A. | 1 only |
| B. | 2 only |
| C. | Both 1 and 2 |
| D. | Neither 1 nor 2 |
| Answer» A. 1 only | |
| 1599. |
The Constituent Assembly appointed the Linguistic Provinces Commission in the year 1948 to enquire into the desirability of linguistic provinces. Who among the following was the Head of that Commission? [IAS 2008] |
| A. | Jawaharlal Nehru |
| B. | Justice S.K. Dhar |
| C. | Justice Fazl AIi |
| D. | Pattabhi Sitaramayya |
| Answer» B. Justice S.K. Dhar | |
| 1600. |
Consider the following statements:
|
| A. | 1 only |
| B. | 2 only |
| C. | Both 1 and 2 |
| D. | Neither 1 nor 2 |
| Answer» A. 1 only | |
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